A nurse is assessing a client who presents with a temperature of 38°C (100.4°F), a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?
Septic shock.
Hypovolemic shock.
Cardiogenic shock.
Neurogenic shock.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Septic shock is characterized by a systemic inflammatory response to infection, leading to vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, and hypotension. The patient’s elevated temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension are consistent with septic shock. In septic shock, the body’s response to infection leads to widespread inflammation and impaired tissue perfusion.
Choice B rationale
Hypovolemic shock is caused by a significant loss of blood or fluids, leading to decreased circulating volume and hypotension. While the patient’s hypotension and tachycardia could be consistent with hypovolemic shock, the elevated temperature suggests an infectious process, making septic shock more likely.
Choice C rationale
Cardiogenic shock is caused by the heart’s inability to pump effectively, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion. While hypotension and tachycardia are consistent with cardiogenic shock, the elevated temperature is not a typical finding. Cardiogenic shock is usually associated with conditions like myocardial infarction or severe heart failure.
Choice D rationale
Neurogenic shock is caused by a disruption in the autonomic pathways, leading to vasodilation and hypotension. It is typically associated with spinal cord injuries or severe head trauma. The patient’s elevated temperature and tachycardia are not consistent with neurogenic shock, making septic shock the more likely diagnosis.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreasing the secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) by the pituitary gland is not a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit. TSH primarily regulates thyroid function and metabolism, and its secretion is not directly related to fluid balance or osmolality.
Choice B rationale
Increasing renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) activity by the kidneys is the body’s primary compensatory response to fluid volume deficit. When there is a decrease in blood volume or blood pressure, the kidneys release renin, which activates the RAAS. This system increases the reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys, leading to an increase in blood volume and blood pressure.
Choice C rationale
Decreasing the secretion of cortisol by the adrenal gland is not a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit. Cortisol is a stress hormone that helps regulate metabolism, immune response, and other functions, but it is not directly involved in fluid balance.
Choice D rationale
Increasing the secretion of natriuretic peptides by the heart is a response to fluid overload, not fluid deficit. Natriuretic peptides promote the excretion of sodium and water by the kidneys, which helps reduce blood volume and pressure. This response is opposite to what is needed in a fluid volume deficit situation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Meningitis presents with fever, stiff neck, and photophobia. It is an inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, often caused by infection.
Choice B rationale
Encephalitis involves inflammation of the brain itself, presenting with fever, headache, and altered mental status, but not specifically photophobia.
Choice C rationale
Migraine can cause photophobia and headache but is not typically associated with fever and stiff neck.
Choice D rationale
Sinusitis can cause fever and headache but not typically photophobia and stiff neck.