A nurse is assessing a client who presents with a temperature of 38°C (100.4°F), a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?
Septic shock.
Hypovolemic shock.
Cardiogenic shock.
Neurogenic shock.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Septic shock is characterized by a systemic inflammatory response to infection, leading to vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, and hypotension. The patient’s elevated temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension are consistent with septic shock. In septic shock, the body’s response to infection leads to widespread inflammation and impaired tissue perfusion.
Choice B rationale
Hypovolemic shock is caused by a significant loss of blood or fluids, leading to decreased circulating volume and hypotension. While the patient’s hypotension and tachycardia could be consistent with hypovolemic shock, the elevated temperature suggests an infectious process, making septic shock more likely.
Choice C rationale
Cardiogenic shock is caused by the heart’s inability to pump effectively, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion. While hypotension and tachycardia are consistent with cardiogenic shock, the elevated temperature is not a typical finding. Cardiogenic shock is usually associated with conditions like myocardial infarction or severe heart failure.
Choice D rationale
Neurogenic shock is caused by a disruption in the autonomic pathways, leading to vasodilation and hypotension. It is typically associated with spinal cord injuries or severe head trauma. The patient’s elevated temperature and tachycardia are not consistent with neurogenic shock, making septic shock the more likely diagnosis.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering antihypertensive medication as prescribed is the priority action for a client with a history of hypertension presenting with severe headache, blurred vision, and confusion. These symptoms suggest a hypertensive crisis, which requires immediate blood pressure reduction to prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Preparing the client for a lumbar puncture is not the priority action in this scenario. While a lumbar puncture may be necessary to rule out other conditions, the immediate concern is to manage the hypertensive crisis.
Choice C rationale
Initiating seizure precautions is important if the client is at risk of seizures, but the priority action is to address the hypertensive crisis by administering antihypertensive medication.vv
Choice D rationale
Monitoring the client’s blood glucose levels is important for overall health management, but it is not the priority action in this scenario. The immediate concern is to manage the hypertensive crisis.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack (stroke) is less common than an ischemic brain attack. Ischemic strokes account for the majority of strokes.
Choice B rationale
Thrombolytic drugs are used to treat ischemic strokes, not hemorrhagic strokes. They do not cause hyper-reactive reflexes.
Choice C rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding in the brain, which can rapidly worsen and cause severe damage.
Choice D rationale
An ischemic brain attack is not necessarily less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack. Both types of strokes are serious, but hemorrhagic strokes often require more urgent intervention due to the risk of ongoing bleeding.