A nurse in the antepartum unit is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Suddenly, the client reports continuous severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?
Prolapsed cord.
Abruptio placentae.
Placenta previa.
Incompetent cervix.
Incompetent cervix.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Prolapsed cord involves the umbilical cord descending into the birth canal ahead of the fetus, which is a critical emergency but presents differently, typically with changes in fetal
heart rate and the cord being palpable or visible.
Choice B rationale
Abruptio placentae is characterized by the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and is a medical
emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
Choice C rationale
Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervical opening, which can cause painless vaginal bleeding but does not typically present with severe
abdominal pain.
Choice D rationale
Incompetent cervix is associated with painless cervical dilation and potential preterm labor but not typically with severe abdominal pain and acute vaginal bleeding as seen with
abruptio placentae
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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Postpartum blues typically resolve within the first two weeks postpartum and involve mild symptoms like mood swings and irritability. In contrast, postpartum depression can persist
longer and requires treatment.
Choice B rationale
Symptoms of postpartum blues usually disappear without medical intervention, whereas postpartum depression often needs professional treatment to manage the more severe and
persistent symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Postpartum depression can impair a mother's ability to care for herself and her baby safely, requiring intervention to prevent harm. Postpartum blues do not typically cause such severe
functional impairment.
Choice D rationale
Postpartum depression may require antidepressants for treatment due to its severity. Postpartum blues generally do not necessitate such interventions and are managed through
support and reassurance.
Choice E rationale
Postpartum depression can occur at any time within the first 12 months after delivery, while postpartum blues are usually confined to the initial two weeks postpartum.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Irregular menses are not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer. While they can indicate hormonal imbalances, they are not strongly linked to cervical cancer risk.
Choice B rationale
Menopausal status and hormone replacement therapy (HRT) are more closely linked to breast cancer risks rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer is primarily associated with HPV infection.
Choice C rationale
Multiple sexual partners increase the risk of HPV infection, which is the primary cause of cervical cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that significantly raises the likelihood of developing cervical cancer.
Choice D rationale
A family history of breast cancer is more relevant to breast cancer risk rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer risk is more closely linked to HPV infection and sexual behavior.