A nurse in the antepartum unit is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Suddenly, the client reports continuous severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?
Prolapsed cord.
Abruptio placentae.
Placenta previa.
Incompetent cervix.
Incompetent cervix.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Prolapsed cord involves the umbilical cord descending into the birth canal ahead of the fetus, which is a critical emergency but presents differently, typically with changes in fetal
heart rate and the cord being palpable or visible.
Choice B rationale
Abruptio placentae is characterized by the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and is a medical
emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
Choice C rationale
Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervical opening, which can cause painless vaginal bleeding but does not typically present with severe
abdominal pain.
Choice D rationale
Incompetent cervix is associated with painless cervical dilation and potential preterm labor but not typically with severe abdominal pain and acute vaginal bleeding as seen with
abruptio placentae
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Irregular menses are not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer. While they can indicate hormonal imbalances, they are not strongly linked to cervical cancer risk.
Choice B rationale
Menopausal status and hormone replacement therapy (HRT) are more closely linked to breast cancer risks rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer is primarily associated with HPV infection.
Choice C rationale
Multiple sexual partners increase the risk of HPV infection, which is the primary cause of cervical cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that significantly raises the likelihood of developing cervical cancer.
Choice D rationale
A family history of breast cancer is more relevant to breast cancer risk rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer risk is more closely linked to HPV infection and sexual behavior.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering antipyretics for maternal fever is essential as elevated maternal temperatures can increase the risk of fetal tachycardia and potentially lead to fetal distress. Reducing
fever promptly is a priority to stabilize both maternal and fetal conditions.
Choice B rationale
Preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not the immediate step for maternal fever; instead, managing the fever and assessing the need for further interventions based on the
overall clinical picture should be prioritized.
Choice C rationale
Administering glucocorticoids is indicated for promoting fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not specifically for maternal fever management. Fever management requires antipyretics
and hydration.
Choice D rationale
Waiting 4 hours to recheck temperature delays prompt management, increasing risks for both the mother and fetus. Immediate action to reduce fever is crucial to prevent potential
complications.