A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with increased shortness of breath and a productive cough. The nurse notes the client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Administering supplemental oxygen.
Encouraging the client to use an incentive spirometer.
Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed.
Positioning the client in high Fowler’s position.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Administering supplemental oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with COPD who has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. This low oxygen saturation indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate correction to prevent further respiratory distress.
Choice B rationale
Encouraging the client to use an incentive spirometer is important for lung expansion and preventing atelectasis, but it is not the priority intervention in this scenario. The immediate concern is to correct the hypoxemia.
Choice C rationale
Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is important for managing COPD symptoms, but the priority intervention is to correct the hypoxemia by administering supplemental oxygen.
Choice D rationale
Positioning the client in high Fowler’s position can help improve breathing, but the priority intervention is to correct the hypoxemia by administering supplemental oxygen.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cerebral ischemia due to an embolus that originates in the left atrium is a common complication of chronic atrial fibrillation (AFib). AFib causes irregular and chaotic electrical signals in the atria, leading to poor blood flow and the formation of blood clots. These clots can travel to the brain, causing a stroke. This is the most acute and severe event associated with chronic AFib.
Choice B rationale
Development of ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia that can occur in patients with severe heart disease, but it is not a common acute event in chronic AFib. Ventricular fibrillation involves the ventricles and is characterized by rapid, erratic electrical impulses, leading to ineffective heart contractions and sudden cardiac arrest.
Choice C rationale
Ischemia of the cerebellum due to a ruptured intracranial aneurysm is not directly related to chronic AFib. While AFib increases the risk of stroke, it does not specifically cause aneurysms or cerebellar ischemia. Aneurysms are typically related to other risk factors such as hypertension and vascular abnormalities.
Choice D rationale
Prolonged capillary refill secondary to a complete lack of cardiac output is a sign of severe cardiac dysfunction or shock. While AFib can lead to heart failure and reduced cardiac output, it does not typically cause a complete lack of cardiac output. The most acute event related to AFib is the formation of emboli and subsequent stroke.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Meningococcal meningitis can present with a high fever (39°C or 102.2°F) and a rash, indicating a severe bacterial infection.
Choice B rationale
Urinary tract infections typically present with urinary symptoms, not a rash.
Choice C rationale
Gastroenteritis presents with gastrointestinal symptoms, not a rash.
Choice D rationale
Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease and does not cause fever or rash.