Mr. Jones is a 55-year-old divorced white male who was recently fired from his job. He lives alone in an apartment, and his sister, who lives nearby, called the police when she found no food in his refrigerator, his house was in shambles, and he threatened “to shoot himself.” When the police arrived, they placed him on an involuntary hold 5150 for danger to self (DTS). In the ambulance, his blood pressure is 180/96, his pulse is 96, respirations are 20 with pulse ox at 99%, and his temperature is 98.6. He looks down and is moving around a lot in his chair.When conducting an admission assessment for Mr. Jones on the psychiatric unit, your first nursing priority is (select the best answer):
“Are you taking any illegal drugs or have you been drinking?”
“Can you tell me why you want to kill yourself?”
Avoid direct questioning and put him in a private room away from the nurses’ station.
Introduce yourself and explain procedures clearly; ask him directly, “Do you feel like harming yourself?”
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason:
Asking Mr. Jones if he is taking any illegal drugs or has been drinking is important for a comprehensive assessment, but it is not the first priority. The immediate concern is to assess his current risk of self-harm and ensure his safety.
Choice B reason:
Asking Mr. Jones why he wants to kill himself is a direct approach, but it may not be the most effective way to establish rapport and assess his immediate risk. It is important to first build trust and ensure he feels safe and understood.
Choice C reason:
Avoiding direct questioning and putting Mr. Jones in a private room away from the nurses’ station is not appropriate. It is important to assess his risk of self-harm directly and ensure he is in a safe environment where he can be closely monitored.
Choice D reason:
Introducing yourself, explaining procedures clearly, and asking Mr. Jones directly if he feels like harming himself is the best approach. This establishes rapport, provides clarity, and allows for an immediate assessment of his risk of self-harm. It ensures that he understands the process and feels supported.
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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Reframing “all or nothing” thinking and that it is all “her fault” is an important cognitive behavioral approach. This technique helps Tiffany recognize and challenge irrational thoughts that contribute to her low self-esteem and anxiety. By learning to see situations in a more balanced way, she can reduce feelings of guilt and self-blame.
Choice B reason:
Having Tiffany identify self-soothing activities for decreasing anxiety is another effective cognitive behavioral approach. Self-soothing activities, such as deep breathing, listening to music, or engaging in hobbies, can help her manage anxiety and reduce the urge to engage in compulsive behaviors like handwashing.
Choice C reason:
Reframing self-criticism and giving positive feedback for insightful comments during group therapy can help Tiffany build self-esteem and develop a more positive self-image. Positive reinforcement encourages her to recognize her strengths and achievements, which can counteract negative self-perceptions.
Choice D reason:
Telling Tiffany she “has her entire life ahead of her and shouldn’t be worried about her former boyfriend” is not a cognitive behavioral approach. While it may be intended to provide reassurance, it does not address the underlying cognitive distortions or provide strategies for managing anxiety and low self-esteem.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Duloxetine (Cymbalta) is an SNRI antidepressant commonly used for both chronic pain and depression. It works by increasing the levels of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps improve mood and alleviate pain. Duloxetine is often prescribed for conditions such as fibromyalgia, diabetic neuropathy, and chronic musculoskeletal pain, in addition to its use in treating major depressive disorder.
Choice B reason:
Sertraline (Zoloft) is an SSRI antidepressant used primarily to treat depression, anxiety disorders, and other mood disorders. While it is effective for these conditions, it is not specifically indicated for chronic pain management.
Choice C reason:
Fluoxetine (Prozac) is another SSRI antidepressant used to treat depression, anxiety disorders, and certain eating disorders. Like sertraline, it is not typically used for chronic pain management.
Choice D reason:
Citalopram (Celexa) is also an SSRI antidepressant used to treat depression. It is not indicated for chronic pain management and is primarily used to improve mood and alleviate symptoms of depression.