Included in the definition of tachysystole is:
Contraction duration of less than 40 seconds.
Contraction frequency of greater than 5 in 10 minutes.
Contraction intensity of less than 80 mm Hg.
Resting tone of less than 18 mm Hg.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Contraction duration less than 40 seconds doesn't define tachysystole. Tachysystole focuses on frequency, not duration, of contractions over a specific time frame.
Choice B rationale
Contraction frequency of more than 5 in 10 minutes defines tachysystole. This frequency indicates excessive uterine activity, requiring intervention to prevent fetal distress.
Choice C rationale
Contraction intensity less than 80 mm Hg does not define tachysystole. Intensity relates to contraction strength, but tachysystole is about frequency exceeding the normal range.
Choice D rationale
Resting tone less than 18 mm Hg isn't part of tachysystole's definition. Tachysystole pertains to contraction frequency, not resting tone, which measures uterine relaxation between contractions.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While massaging the fundus and ensuring IV access are correct initial actions, methylergonovine (Methergine) is typically used for patients without hypertensive history due to its
potential to raise blood pressure.
Choice B rationale
This option correctly identifies initial steps and appropriate medication. Carboprost-tromethamine (Hemabate) is effective in controlling postpartum hemorrhage and can be safely
used in patients with hypertension when oxytocin is insufficient.
Choice C rationale
Quantifying blood loss is essential but it is not an immediate priority when the patient is showing signs of significant bleeding and instability. Immediate intervention to control bleeding
takes precedence.
Choice D rationale
Assisting the patient to the restroom and then massaging the fundus overlooks the immediate need to control bleeding. This approach may delay necessary treatment and increase
the risk of further hemorrhage.
Choice E rationale
Straight catheterization and oxytocin maintenance are part of the management of postpartum hemorrhage but do not address the immediate need to ensure uterine contraction and
control active bleeding as effectively as the initial steps outlined in Choice B. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the
likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications
associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to
complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative
risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .