he nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client experiencing atrial fibrillation. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances would the nurse assess to reduce the incidence of toxicity with digoxin (Lanoxin)?
hypokalemia
hyperkalemia
hypocalcemia
hypernatremia
The Correct Answer is A
A) Hypokalemia: Hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, significantly increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Since digoxin competes with potassium for binding at the sodium-potassium ATPase site in the heart, low potassium levels can lead to increased digoxin effects and toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels and correct any deficiencies before administering digoxin.
B) Hyperkalemia: While hyperkalemia is a serious concern and can also affect digoxin therapy, it usually results in decreased effectiveness of digoxin rather than increasing toxicity. Elevated potassium levels can diminish the drug's positive inotropic effect.
C) Hypocalcemia: Although calcium levels can influence cardiac function, hypocalcemia is not directly related to digoxin toxicity. Monitoring calcium is important for overall cardiac health, but it is not the primary focus when assessing the risk for digoxin toxicity.
D) Hypernatremia: Elevated sodium levels do not have a direct impact on the efficacy or toxicity of digoxin. While sodium levels are essential to monitor for overall health, they are not critical in the context of digoxin administration and toxicity risk.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Carvedilol: While carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can be used to treat hypertension, it is not considered a first-line treatment. Beta-blockers are typically used when other first-line agents are not effective or in specific situations such as heart failure or ischemic heart disease.
B) Lisinopril: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor and is considered a first-line treatment for hypertension. It effectively reduces blood pressure by inhibiting the angiotensin-converting enzyme, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood volume. Its well-documented efficacy and favorable side effect profile make it a common choice for initial therapy.
C) Clonidine: Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that can lower blood pressure but is generally not used as a first-line treatment due to its side effects and potential for rebound hypertension if discontinued abruptly.
D) Doxazosin: Doxazosin is an alpha-1 blocker that can be used to treat hypertension but is not typically a first-line choice. It may be used in specific cases, such as in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia, but other classes of medications are usually preferred for initial hypertension treatment.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT): Argatroban is an indirect thrombin inhibitor specifically used for anticoagulation in patients with HIT. This condition involves a significant drop in platelet counts due to heparin therapy, and argatroban is an appropriate alternative for preventing thrombosis in these patients.
B) Ventricular Dysfunction: While managing anticoagulation may be important in patients with ventricular dysfunction, this condition does not specifically necessitate the use of argatroban. Other anticoagulants may be used based on the clinical situation.
C) Myocardial infarction: Although anticoagulation may be warranted in the setting of a myocardial infarction, argatroban is not specifically indicated for this condition. Other antithrombotic therapies, such as aspirin or heparin, are more commonly used.
D) Hepatotoxicity: Argatroban is metabolized in the liver, so caution is warranted in patients with liver dysfunction. Hepatotoxicity itself would not be a reason to use argatroban; rather, it may require close monitoring or adjustment of dosage.