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During the delivery, which fetal position would be considered optimal for a vaginal birth?

A.

Occiput anterior.

B.

Occiput posterior.

C.

Breech.

D.

Transverse.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

 

The occiput anterior (OA) position is considered the optimal fetal position for vaginal birth. In this position, the baby’s head is down, and the back of the head (occiput) is facing the mother’s front. This position allows for the most efficient passage through the birth canal.

 

Choice B rationale

 

The occiput posterior (OP) position, where the baby’s head is down but facing the mother’s back, can lead to a longer and more painful labor. It is not considered optimal for vaginal birth.

 

Choice C rationale

 

Breech positions, where the baby’s buttocks or feet are positioned to come out first, are not optimal for vaginal birth and often require a cesarean section due to the increased risk of complications.

 

Choice D rationale

 

The transverse position, where the baby is lying sideways across the uterus, is not suitable for vaginal birth. This position typically requires a cesarean section to safely deliver the baby.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A non-stress test (NST) is a common initial assessment for decreased fetal movement. It evaluates fetal heart rate patterns in response to fetal movements, providing information about fetal well-being and oxygenation.

Choice B rationale

A biophysical profile (BPP) is a more comprehensive assessment that includes an NST and ultrasound evaluation of fetal movements, tone, breathing, and amniotic fluid volume. It may be ordered if the NST results are non-reassuring or if there are other concerns.

Choice C rationale

An ultrasound can provide valuable information about fetal growth, amniotic fluid volume, and placental function. It may be used in conjunction with other tests but is not the first-line assessment for decreased fetal movement.

Choice D rationale

Amniocentesis is an invasive procedure used for specific indications, such as genetic testing or assessing fetal lung maturity. It is not typically used for initial assessment of decreased fetal movement.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

  • Thenon-stress test (NST)is reactive, indicating normal fetal heart rate patterns with adequate accelerations.
  • Theultrasoundshows normal amniotic fluid index and fetal movements, with no abnormalities detected.
  • The client has no significant medical history and is generally feeling well.

These findings suggest that the fetus is currently well, and there is no immediate need for further intervention. However, the client should be instructed to monitor fetal movements at home and return if there are any concerns or if decreased fetal movement persists. This approach balances the need for vigilance with the reassurance provided by the normal test results.

.

Choice B rationale

Continuous fetal monitoring is typically reserved for cases where there is a significant concern for fetal distress or other complications. In this case, both the non-stress test (NST) and ultrasound results are normal, indicating that the fetus is currently well. Therefore, continuous monitoring in a hospital setting is not necessary.

Choice C rationale

An immediate cesarean section is a major surgical procedure that is usually performed when there is an urgent risk to the mother or baby. Given the normal NST and ultrasound findings, there is no indication of fetal distress or other complications that would warrant such an intervention at this time.

Choice D rationale

Corticosteroids are given to enhance fetal lung maturity in cases where preterm delivery is anticipated, typically before 34 weeks of gestation. Since the client is already at 35 weeks and there is no indication of imminent preterm labor or other complications, administering corticosteroids is not necessary..

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