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During the delivery, which fetal position would be considered optimal for a vaginal birth?

A.

Occiput anterior.

B.

Occiput posterior.

C.

Breech.

D.

Transverse.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

 

The occiput anterior (OA) position is considered the optimal fetal position for vaginal birth. In this position, the baby’s head is down, and the back of the head (occiput) is facing the mother’s front. This position allows for the most efficient passage through the birth canal.

 

Choice B rationale

 

The occiput posterior (OP) position, where the baby’s head is down but facing the mother’s back, can lead to a longer and more painful labor. It is not considered optimal for vaginal birth.

 

Choice C rationale

 

Breech positions, where the baby’s buttocks or feet are positioned to come out first, are not optimal for vaginal birth and often require a cesarean section due to the increased risk of complications.

 

Choice D rationale

 

The transverse position, where the baby is lying sideways across the uterus, is not suitable for vaginal birth. This position typically requires a cesarean section to safely deliver the baby.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

This statement is incorrect because Stage 2 of labor does not involve the delivery of the placenta. Stage 2 starts with the complete dilation and effacement of the cervix and ends with the delivery of the fetus. The delivery of the placenta occurs in Stage 3 of labor.

Choice B rationale

This statement is correct. Stage 2 of labor begins with complete effacement and dilation of the cervix. This stage is characterized by the mother pushing and the eventual delivery of the baby.

Choice C rationale

This statement is also correct. Stage 2 starts when the cervix is fully dilated, allowing the mother to start pushing. This stage continues until the baby is born.

Choice D rationale

This statement is incorrect. Stage 2 ends with the delivery of the fetus, not the placenta. The delivery of the placenta is part of Stage 3 of labor.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

  • Thenon-stress test (NST)is reactive, indicating normal fetal heart rate patterns with adequate accelerations.
  • Theultrasoundshows normal amniotic fluid index and fetal movements, with no abnormalities detected.
  • The client has no significant medical history and is generally feeling well.

These findings suggest that the fetus is currently well, and there is no immediate need for further intervention. However, the client should be instructed to monitor fetal movements at home and return if there are any concerns or if decreased fetal movement persists. This approach balances the need for vigilance with the reassurance provided by the normal test results.

.

Choice B rationale

Continuous fetal monitoring is typically reserved for cases where there is a significant concern for fetal distress or other complications. In this case, both the non-stress test (NST) and ultrasound results are normal, indicating that the fetus is currently well. Therefore, continuous monitoring in a hospital setting is not necessary.

Choice C rationale

An immediate cesarean section is a major surgical procedure that is usually performed when there is an urgent risk to the mother or baby. Given the normal NST and ultrasound findings, there is no indication of fetal distress or other complications that would warrant such an intervention at this time.

Choice D rationale

Corticosteroids are given to enhance fetal lung maturity in cases where preterm delivery is anticipated, typically before 34 weeks of gestation. Since the client is already at 35 weeks and there is no indication of imminent preterm labor or other complications, administering corticosteroids is not necessary..

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