During the delivery, which fetal position would be considered optimal for a vaginal birth?
Occiput anterior.
Occiput posterior.
Breech.
Transverse.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
The occiput anterior (OA) position is considered the optimal fetal position for vaginal birth. In this position, the baby’s head is down, and the back of the head (occiput) is facing the mother’s front. This position allows for the most efficient passage through the birth canal.
Choice B rationale
The occiput posterior (OP) position, where the baby’s head is down but facing the mother’s back, can lead to a longer and more painful labor. It is not considered optimal for vaginal birth.
Choice C rationale
Breech positions, where the baby’s buttocks or feet are positioned to come out first, are not optimal for vaginal birth and often require a cesarean section due to the increased risk of complications.
Choice D rationale
The transverse position, where the baby is lying sideways across the uterus, is not suitable for vaginal birth. This position typically requires a cesarean section to safely deliver the baby.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Category I tracings are considered normal and are associated with a well-oxygenated, non-acidotic fetus with a normal fetal heart rate baseline, moderate variability, and no late or variable decelerations. However, a baseline heart rate of 175 bpm is considered tachycardia, which does not fit the criteria for Category I.
Choice B rationale
Category II tracings are indeterminate and include any fetal heart rate pattern that does not fit into Category I or III. A baseline heart rate of 175 bpm with moderate variability and no accelerations or decelerations fits into this category. This indicates that the fetus may be experiencing some stress but is not in immediate danger.
Choice C rationale
Category III tracings are abnormal and are associated with an increased risk of fetal acidemia. These tracings include absent baseline variability with recurrent late or variable decelerations, bradycardia, or a sinusoidal pattern. The given tracing does not meet these criteria as it shows moderate variability and no decelerations.
Choice D rationale
There is no Category IV in the classification of fetal heart rate tracings. The standard classification includes only Categories I, II, and III.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist that works by relaxing the smooth muscles of the uterus, thereby reducing uterine contractions. It is commonly used in cases of tachysystole and recurrent late decelerations to decrease uterine activity and improve fetal oxygenation. Terbutaline’s mechanism of action involves stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in cyclic AMP and subsequent relaxation of uterine smooth muscle.
Choice B rationale
Oxytocin is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and is typically used to induce or augment labor. Administering oxytocin in a situation where there is already tachysystole and recurrent late decelerations would exacerbate the problem by increasing uterine contractions, potentially leading to further fetal distress.
Choice C rationale
Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog used to ripen the cervix and induce labor. Similar to oxytocin, it would not be appropriate in this scenario as it would increase uterine contractions, worsening the tachysystole and late decelerations.
Choice D rationale
Magnesium sulfate is primarily used as a tocolytic to prevent preterm labor and as a neuroprotective agent for the fetus in cases of preeclampsia. While it has some uterine relaxation properties, it is not the first-line treatment for reducing uterine activity in the context of tachysystole and late decelerations.