During the assessment of a client's head and neck, the nurse observes the client's facial expressions and the face for symmetry and movement. Which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?
VII
V
III
VI
The Correct Answer is A
A) VII: The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. By assessing facial symmetry and movement, the nurse evaluates the integrity and function of this nerve, which is crucial for activities such as smiling, frowning, and raising eyebrows.
B) V: The trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) is primarily responsible for sensation in the face and motor functions such as chewing. While it plays a role in facial movement, it does not specifically assess facial expressions.
C) III: The oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) controls eye movement and pupil constriction. It does not directly influence facial expressions, so it is not the nerve being assessed in this context.
D) VI: The abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI) is responsible for lateral eye movement. It is unrelated to facial expression or symmetry and is not the focus of this assessment.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Eupnea: Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate, typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute for adults. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is significantly lower than this range, documenting the finding as eupnea would not accurately reflect the client’s condition.
B) Bradypnea: Bradypnea is defined as a slower-than-normal respiratory rate, usually less than 12 breaths per minute. With the client's rate at 9 breaths per minute, this is an example of bradypnea. It is crucial for the nurse to document this finding accurately, even though the client denies feeling short of breath, as it could indicate an underlying issue requiring further assessment.
C) Tachypnea: Tachypnea indicates a faster-than-normal respiratory rate, typically over 20 breaths per minute. Since the client's respiratory rate is low at 9 breaths per minute, labeling it as tachypnea would be incorrect and misleading.
D) Dyspnea: Dyspnea refers to difficulty or discomfort in breathing. Although the client does not report feeling short of breath, it is essential to note that the low respiratory rate could still lead to respiratory distress, but it does not meet the criteria for dyspnea based on the client's self-report. Therefore, documenting this finding as dyspnea would not be appropriate.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Safety issues with an unsupervised resident in the lounge area: While there could be safety concerns related to a resident being in a common area at night, the primary outcome expected from continued insomnia would more directly relate to the individual's functioning rather than immediate safety issues.
B) Onset of cardiac dysfunction: While chronic sleep disturbances can contribute to various health problems, including cardiovascular issues, the immediate outcome of insomnia is more likely to be seen in daily functioning rather than a direct onset of cardiac dysfunction.
C) Onset of new underdiagnosed health problems: While ongoing insomnia may exacerbate existing health issues or lead to new ones over time, the most immediate and observable outcome of insomnia would relate to how it affects daily functioning rather than the development of new health problems.
D) The ability to function during the day may be hindered by these episodes: Insomnia typically leads to increased fatigue, decreased alertness, and impaired cognitive function during the day. As a result, the resident's overall ability to engage in daily activities and interact socially may be significantly hindered by their lack of restorative sleep.