During the assessment of a client's head and neck, the nurse observes the client's facial expressions and the face for symmetry and movement. Which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?
VII
V
III
VI
The Correct Answer is A
A) VII: The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. By assessing facial symmetry and movement, the nurse evaluates the integrity and function of this nerve, which is crucial for activities such as smiling, frowning, and raising eyebrows.
B) V: The trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) is primarily responsible for sensation in the face and motor functions such as chewing. While it plays a role in facial movement, it does not specifically assess facial expressions.
C) III: The oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) controls eye movement and pupil constriction. It does not directly influence facial expressions, so it is not the nerve being assessed in this context.
D) VI: The abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI) is responsible for lateral eye movement. It is unrelated to facial expression or symmetry and is not the focus of this assessment.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Eupnea: Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate, typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute for adults. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is significantly lower than this range, documenting the finding as eupnea would not accurately reflect the client’s condition.
B) Bradypnea: Bradypnea is defined as a slower-than-normal respiratory rate, usually less than 12 breaths per minute. With the client's rate at 9 breaths per minute, this is an example of bradypnea. It is crucial for the nurse to document this finding accurately, even though the client denies feeling short of breath, as it could indicate an underlying issue requiring further assessment.
C) Tachypnea: Tachypnea indicates a faster-than-normal respiratory rate, typically over 20 breaths per minute. Since the client's respiratory rate is low at 9 breaths per minute, labeling it as tachypnea would be incorrect and misleading.
D) Dyspnea: Dyspnea refers to difficulty or discomfort in breathing. Although the client does not report feeling short of breath, it is essential to note that the low respiratory rate could still lead to respiratory distress, but it does not meet the criteria for dyspnea based on the client's self-report. Therefore, documenting this finding as dyspnea would not be appropriate.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Chronic pain: Chronic pain is defined as pain that lasts for an extended period, often longer than three months, and is usually associated with conditions that are ongoing or recurring. The client’s symptoms, including sudden-onset severe pain and accompanying acute symptoms like nausea and vomiting, do not align with the characteristics of chronic pain.
B) Intractable pain: Intractable pain refers to pain that is resistant to treatment and does not respond well to analgesics or other interventions. While the client's pain is severe, the sudden onset and associated symptoms suggest a specific acute process rather than a pain condition that is inherently resistant to treatment.
C) Acute pain: Acute pain is characterized by its sudden onset and typically corresponds to a specific injury or condition, often with accompanying physiological responses such as nausea and restlessness. The client’s severe pain rating of 10, along with nausea and vomiting, strongly indicates that they are experiencing acute pain, likely related to an underlying acute abdominal condition.
D) End-of-life pain: End-of-life pain usually occurs in patients with terminal illnesses and is often managed with palliative care strategies. The client’s sudden onset of severe pain and accompanying symptoms indicate a different situation, likely not related to a terminal condition.