Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

An 11-year-old client is having a cavity filled in the left mandibular first molar. The health care provider has prescribed aspirin for pain relief after the procedure. The nurse discovers upon assessment that the child is suffering from a flulike illness. The nurse contacts the health care provider about the prescribed medication for pain. What is the risk if aspirin is administered to this client?

A.

Reye syndrome

B.

Excess antiplatelet action

C.

Asthma

D.

Salicylate poisoning

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Reye syndrome is correct because administering aspirin to children, especially during viral illnesses like the flu, can lead to this serious and potentially fatal condition characterized by acute encephalopathy and liver failure.  

 

B. Excess antiplatelet action is incorrect; while aspirin does have antiplatelet effects, this is not the primary concern in a child with a viral illness.  

 

C. Asthma is incorrect; while some individuals with asthma may have sensitivity to aspirin, it is not specifically related to the child's flulike illness.  

 

D. Salicylate poisoning is incorrect; while high doses of aspirin can lead to toxicity, the immediate risk in the context of flu-like illness is Reye syndrome, which is a more specific concern.


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Changing positions slowly is critical for older adults taking beta-adrenergic blockers and diuretics to prevent orthostatic hypotension, which can lead to lightheadedness or dizziness.

B. Reducing fluid intake is not advisable, as thiazide diuretics can lead to dehydration, and maintaining adequate fluid intake is essential for overall health and to avoid excessive urinary output.

C. Identifying and eliminating high-potassium foods is unnecessary unless there is a specific indication of hyperkalemia, particularly since thiazide diuretics do not typically cause potassium retention, and beta-blockers are not potassium-specific.

D. Expecting blood pressure to increase before it decreases is misleading; clients should see a gradual reduction in blood pressure with proper medication adherence, and any sudden increases should be reported.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Increasing fluid intake may not alleviate the cramping and diarrhea, which are common side effects of magnesium citrate.

B. Abdominal cramping and diarrhea are expected side effects of magnesium citrate, and the patient can continue the medication unless symptoms become severe.

C. Discontinuing the medication should not be recommended unless the side effects are intolerable or the patient experiences severe reactions.

D. Switching to a different type of laxative is unnecessary unless the patient has contraindications to magnesium citrate or develops severe side effects.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2025, All Right Reserved.