An 11-year-old client is having a cavity filled in the left mandibular first molar. The health care provider has prescribed aspirin for pain relief after the procedure. The nurse discovers upon assessment that the child is suffering from a flulike illness. The nurse contacts the health care provider about the prescribed medication for pain. What is the risk if aspirin is administered to this client?
Reye syndrome
Excess antiplatelet action
Asthma
Salicylate poisoning
The Correct Answer is A
A. Reye syndrome is correct because administering aspirin to children, especially during viral illnesses like the flu, can lead to this serious and potentially fatal condition characterized by acute encephalopathy and liver failure.
B. Excess antiplatelet action is incorrect; while aspirin does have antiplatelet effects, this is not the primary concern in a child with a viral illness.
C. Asthma is incorrect; while some individuals with asthma may have sensitivity to aspirin, it is not specifically related to the child's flulike illness.
D. Salicylate poisoning is incorrect; while high doses of aspirin can lead to toxicity, the immediate risk in the context of flu-like illness is Reye syndrome, which is a more specific concern.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. An increased risk for CNS depression is not typically associated with opioid agonist-antagonists; instead, these medications may produce a ceiling effect on sedation compared to full agonists.
B. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with full opioid agonists rather than agonist-antagonists. Agonist-antagonists can sometimes counteract respiratory depression caused by full agonists.
C. Opioid withdrawal symptoms can occur when a client who is dependent on full agonist opioids is given an agonist-antagonist, as these medications can displace the agonist from receptors, leading to withdrawal.
D. Hypotension is a possible side effect of opioids but is not a specific concern with the use of agonist-antagonists in the context of opioid therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Bruising and bleeding gums are not indicative of an allergic reaction, which would typically present with different symptoms such as rash, itching, or swelling. Administering antihistamines would not address the underlying issue.
B. The development of bruising and bleeding gums in a patient on heparin therapy suggests a bleeding complication, which is a known risk of anticoagulation therapy. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider to assess the situation and possibly adjust treatment or perform further evaluations.
C. While hypersensitivity reactions can occur with medications, the symptoms presented here are more aligned with bleeding complications than with hypersensitivity. Discontinuing heparin without consulting the provider could put the patient at risk for thromboembolic events.
D. The symptoms do not indicate an infection; therefore, initiating antibiotic therapy would not be appropriate in this context.