An 11-year-old client is having a cavity filled in the left mandibular first molar. The health care provider has prescribed aspirin for pain relief after the procedure. The nurse discovers upon assessment that the child is suffering from a flulike illness. The nurse contacts the health care provider about the prescribed medication for pain. What is the risk if aspirin is administered to this client?
Reye syndrome
Excess antiplatelet action
Asthma
Salicylate poisoning
The Correct Answer is A
A. Reye syndrome is correct because administering aspirin to children, especially during viral illnesses like the flu, can lead to this serious and potentially fatal condition characterized by acute encephalopathy and liver failure.
B. Excess antiplatelet action is incorrect; while aspirin does have antiplatelet effects, this is not the primary concern in a child with a viral illness.
C. Asthma is incorrect; while some individuals with asthma may have sensitivity to aspirin, it is not specifically related to the child's flulike illness.
D. Salicylate poisoning is incorrect; while high doses of aspirin can lead to toxicity, the immediate risk in the context of flu-like illness is Reye syndrome, which is a more specific concern.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While historical context is useful, the development of antimicrobials primarily began in the early 20th century, notably with penicillin discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1928.
B. This statement is incorrect; fluoroquinolones primarily inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis rather than directly affecting the cell wall.
C. Selective toxicity is a principle of antimicrobial action but does not directly explain how a specific antimicrobial works therapeutically.
D. Penicillin specifically interferes with the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell lysis and death of the bacteria, which is a fundamental mechanism of action for this antibiotic.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. An INR of 5.0 indicates a significantly increased risk of bleeding, and administering vitamin K is the appropriate antidote for reversing the effects of warfarin. This is a critical intervention to restore coagulation.
B. Increasing the dose of warfarin is inappropriate in this scenario because the INR is already elevated; it would further increase bleeding risk.
C. While heparin can be used for anticoagulation, it is not appropriate to administer it while the INR is dangerously high without reversing the warfarin first.
D. Continuing warfarin is unsafe at this INR level due to the high risk of bleeding; monitoring for symptoms without intervention is not adequate care.