An 11-year-old client is having a cavity filled in the left mandibular first molar. The health care provider has prescribed aspirin for pain relief after the procedure. The nurse discovers upon assessment that the child is suffering from a flulike illness. The nurse contacts the health care provider about the prescribed medication for pain. What is the risk if aspirin is administered to this client?
Reye syndrome
Excess antiplatelet action
Asthma
Salicylate poisoning
The Correct Answer is A
A. Reye syndrome is correct because administering aspirin to children, especially during viral illnesses like the flu, can lead to this serious and potentially fatal condition characterized by acute encephalopathy and liver failure.
B. Excess antiplatelet action is incorrect; while aspirin does have antiplatelet effects, this is not the primary concern in a child with a viral illness.
C. Asthma is incorrect; while some individuals with asthma may have sensitivity to aspirin, it is not specifically related to the child's flulike illness.
D. Salicylate poisoning is incorrect; while high doses of aspirin can lead to toxicity, the immediate risk in the context of flu-like illness is Reye syndrome, which is a more specific concern.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Rebound hypertension can occur if antihypertensive medications are abruptly stopped, but it is not a direct reason for switching from an ACE inhibitor to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.
B. A persistent cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to the accumulation of bradykinin. If the client experienced this side effect, it would likely prompt the healthcare provider to switch to an angiotensin II receptor blocker, which does not typically cause this issue.
C. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) would require urgent intervention but is not a reason for changing from an ACE inhibitor to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.
D. Non-adherence to ACE inhibitor treatment may lead to ineffective blood pressure control but would not directly justify a switch to a different class of medication.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Increasing fluid intake may not alleviate the cramping and diarrhea, which are common side effects of magnesium citrate.
B. Abdominal cramping and diarrhea are expected side effects of magnesium citrate, and the patient can continue the medication unless symptoms become severe.
C. Discontinuing the medication should not be recommended unless the side effects are intolerable or the patient experiences severe reactions.
D. Switching to a different type of laxative is unnecessary unless the patient has contraindications to magnesium citrate or develops severe side effects.