An 11-year-old client is having a cavity filled in the left mandibular first molar. The health care provider has prescribed aspirin for pain relief after the procedure. The nurse discovers upon assessment that the child is suffering from a flulike illness. The nurse contacts the health care provider about the prescribed medication for pain. What is the risk if aspirin is administered to this client?
Reye syndrome
Excess antiplatelet action
Asthma
Salicylate poisoning
The Correct Answer is A
A. Reye syndrome is correct because administering aspirin to children, especially during viral illnesses like the flu, can lead to this serious and potentially fatal condition characterized by acute encephalopathy and liver failure.
B. Excess antiplatelet action is incorrect; while aspirin does have antiplatelet effects, this is not the primary concern in a child with a viral illness.
C. Asthma is incorrect; while some individuals with asthma may have sensitivity to aspirin, it is not specifically related to the child's flulike illness.
D. Salicylate poisoning is incorrect; while high doses of aspirin can lead to toxicity, the immediate risk in the context of flu-like illness is Reye syndrome, which is a more specific concern.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. By directly relaxing vascular smooth muscle is not how lisinopril primarily works; it does not act directly on smooth muscle but rather affects hormonal pathways.
B. By blocking aldosterone from binding to mineralocorticoid receptors is a secondary effect of the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors but not the primary action of lisinopril itself.
C. By blocking the movement of calcium ions into arterial smooth muscles describes the action of calcium channel blockers, not ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.
D. By inhibiting the transformation of angiotensin I to angiotensin II is the correct answer because lisinopril inhibits the ACE enzyme, reducing the production of angiotensin II, which lowers blood pressure and decreases strain on the heart.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Blood pressure is correct because both nitroglycerin and diltiazem can cause vasodilation, leading to hypotension; thus, monitoring blood pressure is crucial for patient safety.
B. Level of consciousness is incorrect; while important, it is not the primary concern in this context.
C. Daily weights are incorrect; they are more relevant for assessing fluid status over time, not immediate drug effects.
D. Respiratory status is incorrect; while monitoring is important, blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension associated with these medications.