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A student nurse documents the following: Lower left leg cool, mild edema, with dorsalis pedis, posterior knee and femoral pulse normal. How should this documentation be charted to communicate the assessment using appropriate medical terminology?

A.

Left extremity cool to touch, normal pitting edema, with femoral, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2.

B.

Left lower extremity cool to touch, +2 pitting edema, with femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2.

C.

Left lower leg cool to touch, +4 edema with femoral, posterial tibial, dorsalis and pedis pulses normal.

D.

Left lower leg normal cool temperature, slight swelling, femoral, posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses normal.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Left extremity cool to touch, normal pitting edema, with femoral, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2: While this option describes the left extremity and includes some relevant details, it inaccurately uses "normal pitting edema" without specifying the degree of edema clearly. Additionally, it lists the posterior tibial pulse instead of the popliteal, which is more appropriate given the anatomical location.

 

B) Left lower extremity cool to touch, +2 pitting edema, with femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2: This documentation accurately describes the left lower extremity, specifies the degree of edema as "+2," and correctly identifies the relevant pulses as femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis. This terminology is clear and concise, providing a comprehensive assessment of the vascular status.

 

C) Left lower leg cool to touch, +4 edema with femoral, posterial tibial, dorsalis and pedis pulses normal: This option incorrectly reports the degree of edema as "+4," which indicates severe swelling, not matching the original assessment of "mild edema." It also incorrectly lists the posterior tibial pulse, which should be popliteal.

 

D) Left lower leg normal cool temperature, slight swelling, femoral, posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses normal: The term "normal cool temperature" is confusing and not standard terminology. Additionally, "slight swelling" lacks specificity regarding the degree of edema, which is important for a clinical assessment. Furthermore, it inaccurately refers to the posterior tibial pulse instead of the popliteal.


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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Inflammation of the lamina of the involved vertebra: While inflammation can contribute to pain, it is not the primary cause in the context of a herniated disc. The pain associated with a herniated disc is typically related to nerve compression rather than inflammation of the lamina itself.

B) Shifting of two adjacent vertebrae out of alignment: This describes a different condition, such as spondylolisthesis. A herniated disc primarily involves the displacement of disc material, rather than a significant misalignment of the vertebrae.

C) Increased pressure of cerebral spinal fluid within the vertebral column: Increased cerebrospinal fluid pressure is not typically associated with herniated discs and does not directly cause the pain related to this condition.

D) Compression of the spinal cord by the extruding disc: This is the most accurate explanation for the patient's pain. A cervical herniated disc can protrude and compress nearby nerve roots or the spinal cord itself, leading to significant pain, weakness, and other neurological symptoms. This compression is the primary cause of pain in patients with this diagnosis.

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