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A resident in an assisted-living facility is restless most nights and sits in the lounge area reading. When questioned, the resident reports suffering from insomnia. What should the nurse expect as an outcome if the resident continues with this pattern of sleep?

A.

Safety issues with an unsupervised resident in the lounge area

B.

Onset of cardiac dysfunction

C.

Onset of new underdiagnosed health problems

D.

The ability to function during the day may be hindered by these episodes.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) Safety issues with an unsupervised resident in the lounge area: While there could be safety concerns related to a resident being in a common area at night, the primary outcome expected from continued insomnia would more directly relate to the individual's functioning rather than immediate safety issues.

 

B) Onset of cardiac dysfunction: While chronic sleep disturbances can contribute to various health problems, including cardiovascular issues, the immediate outcome of insomnia is more likely to be seen in daily functioning rather than a direct onset of cardiac dysfunction.

 

C) Onset of new underdiagnosed health problems: While ongoing insomnia may exacerbate existing health issues or lead to new ones over time, the most immediate and observable outcome of insomnia would relate to how it affects daily functioning rather than the development of new health problems.

 

D) The ability to function during the day may be hindered by these episodes: Insomnia typically leads to increased fatigue, decreased alertness, and impaired cognitive function during the day. As a result, the resident's overall ability to engage in daily activities and interact socially may be significantly hindered by their lack of restorative sleep.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Left extremity cool to touch, normal pitting edema, with femoral, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2: While this option describes the left extremity and includes some relevant details, it inaccurately uses "normal pitting edema" without specifying the degree of edema clearly. Additionally, it lists the posterior tibial pulse instead of the popliteal, which is more appropriate given the anatomical location.

B) Left lower extremity cool to touch, +2 pitting edema, with femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2: This documentation accurately describes the left lower extremity, specifies the degree of edema as "+2," and correctly identifies the relevant pulses as femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis. This terminology is clear and concise, providing a comprehensive assessment of the vascular status.

C) Left lower leg cool to touch, +4 edema with femoral, posterial tibial, dorsalis and pedis pulses normal: This option incorrectly reports the degree of edema as "+4," which indicates severe swelling, not matching the original assessment of "mild edema." It also incorrectly lists the posterior tibial pulse, which should be popliteal.

D) Left lower leg normal cool temperature, slight swelling, femoral, posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses normal: The term "normal cool temperature" is confusing and not standard terminology. Additionally, "slight swelling" lacks specificity regarding the degree of edema, which is important for a clinical assessment. Furthermore, it inaccurately refers to the posterior tibial pulse instead of the popliteal.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Motor component of IV (Trochlear): The trochlear nerve primarily controls the superior oblique muscle of the eye, which is responsible for downward and lateral eye movements. The findings described do not relate to eye movement and therefore do not indicate dysfunction of this nerve.



B) Motor and sensory components of XI (Accessory): The accessory nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, primarily affecting head rotation and shoulder elevation. The symptoms noted in the assessment do not pertain to these muscle functions, so this option is not correct.

C) Motor component of VII (Facial): The signs of asymmetry in frowning, uneven eyebrow lifting, sagging eyelids, and air escaping when puffing the cheeks are characteristic of dysfunction in the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). This nerve controls the muscles of facial expression, and impairment would lead to the described asymmetrical movements.

D) Motor component of X (Vagus) and sensory component of XII (Hypoglossal): The vagus nerve affects autonomic functions and some swallowing muscles, while the hypoglossal nerve controls tongue movements. Neither nerve is primarily responsible for the facial expressions described in the assessment findings, making this option incorrect.

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