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A preterm labor client at 30 weeks' gestation reported rupture of membranes 4 hours ago. This was confirmed on examination. The nurse prepares to administer IM dexamethasone. When the client asks why she is receiving the drug, the nurse replies:

A.

To help stop your labor contractions.

B.

To prevent an infection in your uterus.

C.

To help mature your baby's lungs.

D.

To decrease the pain from the contractions.

E.

To decrease the pain from the contractions.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

Dexamethasone does not directly stop labor contractions; instead, it is used to enhance fetal lung maturity.

 

Choice B rationale

Dexamethasone is not for infection prevention; antibiotics are used for that purpose in cases of premature rupture of membranes.

 

Choice C rationale

Dexamethasone is administered to enhance fetal lung maturity, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants.

 

Choice D rationale

Dexamethasone is not used for pain relief in preterm labor; other medications are prescribed for pain management.


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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the

likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.

Choice B rationale

A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications

associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.

Choice C rationale

A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to

complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.

Choice D rationale

A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative

risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Contraction duration less than 40 seconds doesn't define tachysystole. Tachysystole focuses on excessive frequency of contractions rather than their duration.

Choice B rationale

Contraction frequency of more than 5 in 10 minutes defines tachysystole. This condition indicates too frequent uterine activity, which can compromise fetal oxygenation.

Choice C rationale

Contraction intensity less than 80 mm Hg doesn't define tachysystole. Tachysystole is characterized by the number of contractions, not their intensity.

Choice D rationale

Resting tone less than 18 mm Hg is not related to the definition of tachysystole. Tachysystole concerns contraction frequency, not the resting tone of the uterus between contractions. .

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