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A postsurgical client has been receiving morphine by patient-controlled analgesia for 2 days. What action by the nurse best addresses potential adverse effects?

A.

administering a stool softener as prescribed

B.

auscultating the client's lung for adventitious sounds

C.

encouraging active range of motion exercises

D.

applying calf compressors as prescribed

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Administering a stool softener is essential as opioids like morphine commonly cause constipation, and this proactive measure helps mitigate that adverse effect.  

 

B. While auscultating the lungs is important to monitor respiratory function, it does not specifically address a common adverse effect of morphine.  

 

C. Encouraging active range of motion exercises can help prevent complications from immobility but does not directly address the most common adverse effect of morphine.  

 

D. Applying calf compressors can help prevent deep vein thrombosis, but it is not the most effective action for addressing the specific adverse effects of morphine use.


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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. While MAOIs may have some regulatory considerations, they are not classified under a scheduled drug classification like controlled substances.

B. MAOIs are effective in treating depression and anxiety disorders, which is not the reason for their limited use.

C. Although MAOIs can have some side effects, they are more notably associated with dietary and drug interactions rather than causing GI bleeding or esophageal varices.

D. MAOIs can cause dangerous interactions with foods that contain tyramine (like aged cheeses and fermented products) and certain medications, leading to hypertensive crises, making their use cautious and limiting in clinical practice.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. An INR of 5.0 indicates a significantly increased risk of bleeding, and administering vitamin K is the appropriate antidote for reversing the effects of warfarin. This is a critical intervention to restore coagulation.

B. Increasing the dose of warfarin is inappropriate in this scenario because the INR is already elevated; it would further increase bleeding risk.

C. While heparin can be used for anticoagulation, it is not appropriate to administer it while the INR is dangerously high without reversing the warfarin first.

D. Continuing warfarin is unsafe at this INR level due to the high risk of bleeding; monitoring for symptoms without intervention is not adequate care.

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