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A postpartum client has been diagnosed with postpartum psychosis.
Which of the following is essential to be included in the family teaching for this client?

A.

The client should never be left alone with her infant.

B.

Symptoms rarely last more than one week.

C.

Clinical response to medications is usually poor.

D.

The client must have her vitals assessed every two days.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Postpartum psychosis poses significant risks to both the mother and her infant. The mother may have impaired judgment, hallucinations, or delusions, making it unsafe for her to be

left alone with her baby.

 

Choice B rationale

Symptoms of postpartum psychosis can persist for several weeks to months without appropriate treatment. Immediate and ongoing intervention is crucial to manage the condition.

 

Choice C rationale

Clinical response to medications for postpartum psychosis can vary, but with proper treatment, many clients show significant improvement. It is not accurate to state that the

response is usually poor.

 

Choice D rationale

While monitoring vitals may be part of overall care, it is not the most critical teaching point. Ensuring the mother is never left alone with her infant is essential to prevent potential

harm.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While maternal lacerations are a risk during childbirth, they are not the greatest risk in cases of fetal dystocia. The focus is primarily on fetal wellbeing.

Choice B rationale

Fetal injury such as bruising can occur with dystocia, but the primary concern is the potential for severe, life-threatening complications.

Choice C rationale

Neonatal asphyxia related to prolonged labor is the greatest risk with fetal dystocia. Prolonged labor can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, causing asphyxia and

potential brain injury.

Choice D rationale

Increased consideration for a cesarean delivery is a possible outcome of fetal dystocia, but it is a management decision rather than a direct risk to the baby’s immediate health.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Blood pressure of 160/110 indicates severe preeclampsia and warrants immediate intervention to prevent complications. Stopping oxytocin is part of the management of severe

preeclampsia to avoid exacerbating the condition.

Choice B rationale

Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes is within the normal range during labor induction and does not warrant stopping the infusion unless there are other concerns.

Choice C rationale

A fetal heart rate of 155 bpm with early decelerations may require close monitoring but does not necessarily warrant stopping the oxytocin infusion. Early decelerations are typically a

normal physiological response.

Choice D rationale

Frequency of contractions every 3 minutes is expected during active labor and is generally not a cause to stop the oxytocin infusion. The nurse should continue to monitor the labor

progression closely.

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