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A postpartum client has been diagnosed with postpartum psychosis.
Which of the following is essential to be included in the family teaching for this client?

A.

The client should never be left alone with her infant.

B.

Symptoms rarely last more than one week.

C.

Clinical response to medications is usually poor.

D.

The client must have her vitals assessed every two days.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Postpartum psychosis poses significant risks to both the mother and her infant. The mother may have impaired judgment, hallucinations, or delusions, making it unsafe for her to be

left alone with her baby.

 

Choice B rationale

Symptoms of postpartum psychosis can persist for several weeks to months without appropriate treatment. Immediate and ongoing intervention is crucial to manage the condition.

 

Choice C rationale

Clinical response to medications for postpartum psychosis can vary, but with proper treatment, many clients show significant improvement. It is not accurate to state that the

response is usually poor.

 

Choice D rationale

While monitoring vitals may be part of overall care, it is not the most critical teaching point. Ensuring the mother is never left alone with her infant is essential to prevent potential

harm.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Magnesium sulfate is primarily used for neuroprotection in preterm infants and to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia, not as a first-line tocolytic for preterm labor.

Choice B rationale

Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic used for pain management, not for inhibiting preterm labor contractions.

Choice C rationale

Terbutaline is a beta-agonist used as a tocolytic to relax uterine muscles and delay preterm labor. It helps decrease the intensity and frequency of contractions, making it suitable for managing preterm labor.

Choice D rationale

Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not for direct contraction inhibition.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Placental abruption is characterized by abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and uterine tenderness. It does not cause dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, or loss of consciousness.

Choice B rationale

Uterine rupture typically presents with severe abdominal pain, abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, and vaginal bleeding. Shock can occur, but not frothy sputum or sudden dyspnea.

Choice C rationale

Uterine inversion leads to pain, hemorrhage, and shock. It does not present with frothy sputum or sudden dyspnea.

Choice D rationale

Anaphylactoid syndrome (amniotic fluid embolism) results from amniotic fluid entering maternal circulation, causing an anaphylactic reaction. Symptoms include sudden dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, and loss of consciousness, matching the described scenario. .

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