A postpartum client has been diagnosed with postpartum psychosis.
Which of the following is essential to be included in the family teaching for this client?
The client should never be left alone with her infant.
Symptoms rarely last more than one week.
Clinical response to medications is usually poor.
The client must have her vitals assessed every two days.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Postpartum psychosis poses significant risks to both the mother and her infant. The mother may have impaired judgment, hallucinations, or delusions, making it unsafe for her to be
left alone with her baby.
Choice B rationale
Symptoms of postpartum psychosis can persist for several weeks to months without appropriate treatment. Immediate and ongoing intervention is crucial to manage the condition.
Choice C rationale
Clinical response to medications for postpartum psychosis can vary, but with proper treatment, many clients show significant improvement. It is not accurate to state that the
response is usually poor.
Choice D rationale
While monitoring vitals may be part of overall care, it is not the most critical teaching point. Ensuring the mother is never left alone with her infant is essential to prevent potential
harm.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Placental abruption is characterized by abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and uterine tenderness. It does not cause dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, or loss of consciousness.
Choice B rationale
Uterine rupture typically presents with severe abdominal pain, abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, and vaginal bleeding. Shock can occur, but not frothy sputum or sudden dyspnea.
Choice C rationale
Uterine inversion leads to pain, hemorrhage, and shock. It does not present with frothy sputum or sudden dyspnea.
Choice D rationale
Anaphylactoid syndrome (amniotic fluid embolism) results from amniotic fluid entering maternal circulation, causing an anaphylactic reaction. Symptoms include sudden dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, and loss of consciousness, matching the described scenario. .
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A low transverse uterine scar is considered the safest type of uterine incision for a VBAC because it is less likely to rupture compared to other types of scars. Therefore, a low transverse uterine scar would not disqualify the patient for VBAC.
Choice B rationale
Patient asking multiple questions does not disqualify her for VBAC. Patient education and ensuring the patient’s understanding and agreement with the procedure is an essential part of the process.
Choice C rationale
Induction of labor in the first pregnancy does not automatically disqualify a patient from attempting VBAC. The success of VBAC depends on multiple factors including the reason for the initial cesarean section.
Choice D rationale
A cesarean due to pelvic abnormalities would disqualify the patient for VBAC because the underlying pelvic condition that necessitated the initial cesarean section is likely still present and would increase the risk of complications during vaginal birth.