A postpartum client has been diagnosed with postpartum psychosis.
Which of the following is essential to be included in the family teaching for this client?
The client should never be left alone with her infant.
Symptoms rarely last more than one week.
Clinical response to medications is usually poor.
The client must have her vitals assessed every two days.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Postpartum psychosis poses significant risks to both the mother and her infant. The mother may have impaired judgment, hallucinations, or delusions, making it unsafe for her to be
left alone with her baby.
Choice B rationale
Symptoms of postpartum psychosis can persist for several weeks to months without appropriate treatment. Immediate and ongoing intervention is crucial to manage the condition.
Choice C rationale
Clinical response to medications for postpartum psychosis can vary, but with proper treatment, many clients show significant improvement. It is not accurate to state that the
response is usually poor.
Choice D rationale
While monitoring vitals may be part of overall care, it is not the most critical teaching point. Ensuring the mother is never left alone with her infant is essential to prevent potential
harm.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Reporting abnormal findings to the obstetrician is unnecessary because an increase in the Bishop score from 4 to 10 indicates successful cervical ripening and readiness for labor
induction.
Choice B rationale
Placing the client on her side is not directly related to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. It may be considered for comfort during labor.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring for the onset of labor is appropriate since the increase in the Bishop score to 10 suggests that the cervix is favorable for labor. Continuous monitoring is essential to detect
the onset and progression of labor.
Choice D rationale
Performing nitrazine analysis of amniotic fluid is not relevant to the assessment of cervical ripening or the Bishop score. This test is typically used to confirm the presence of amniotic
fluid in cases of suspected rupture of membranes.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Numbness in the toes and heel might suggest nerve involvement but is not a typical sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which involves the veins, not nerves.
Choice B rationale
Pain relieved by dorsiflexion (positive Homan's sign) is not reliable for diagnosing DVT. This symptom is outdated and not considered a definitive sign.
Choice C rationale
Spider-like and purple veins suggest superficial varicose veins, not deep vein thrombosis, which affects deeper veins and presents differently.
Choice D rationale
Swelling, redness, and warmth in the calf are classic signs of DVT due to the inflammation and obstruction of deep veins. These symptoms should prompt immediate medical evaluation and intervention. .