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A postpartum client has been diagnosed with postpartum psychosis.
Which of the following is essential to be included in the family teaching for this client?

A.

The client should never be left alone with her infant.

B.

Symptoms rarely last more than one week.

C.

Clinical response to medications is usually poor.

D.

The client must have her vitals assessed every two days.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Postpartum psychosis poses significant risks to both the mother and her infant. The mother may have impaired judgment, hallucinations, or delusions, making it unsafe for her to be

left alone with her baby.

 

Choice B rationale

Symptoms of postpartum psychosis can persist for several weeks to months without appropriate treatment. Immediate and ongoing intervention is crucial to manage the condition.

 

Choice C rationale

Clinical response to medications for postpartum psychosis can vary, but with proper treatment, many clients show significant improvement. It is not accurate to state that the

response is usually poor.

 

Choice D rationale

While monitoring vitals may be part of overall care, it is not the most critical teaching point. Ensuring the mother is never left alone with her infant is essential to prevent potential

harm.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Numbness in the toes and heel might suggest nerve involvement but is not a typical sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which involves the veins, not nerves.

Choice B rationale

Pain relieved by dorsiflexion (positive Homan's sign) is not reliable for diagnosing DVT. This symptom is outdated and not considered a definitive sign.

Choice C rationale

Spider-like and purple veins suggest superficial varicose veins, not deep vein thrombosis, which affects deeper veins and presents differently.

Choice D rationale

Swelling, redness, and warmth in the calf are classic signs of DVT due to the inflammation and obstruction of deep veins. These symptoms should prompt immediate medical evaluation and intervention. .

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

The hemoglobin level of 11.6 g/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman. While placenta previa requires monitoring, it is not immediately life-threatening.

Choice B rationale

Type 2 diabetes mellitus requires regular monitoring and management, but a single fasting blood glucose level does not indicate an immediate emergency unless it is extremely high or low.

Choice C rationale

Partial placental abruption can lead to significant complications for both the mother and fetus, including hemorrhage and fetal distress, making it the priority for immediate assessment.

Choice D rationale

An Rh-negative status and a recent cerclage placement are important for ongoing monitoring but do not present an immediate life-threatening condition that demands the first assessment.

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