Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

A patient's ABG shows: pH 7.32. PaCO2 50 mmHg. HCO3 24 mEq/L. What is the correct diagnosis?

A.

Metabolic acidosis

B.

Respiratory acidosis

C.

Respiratory alkalosis

D.

Metabolic alkalosis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Metabolic acidosis would be indicated by a low pH and a low HCO3, which is not present in this case since HCO3 is normal.  

 

B. The pH of 7.32 indicates acidemia, and a PaCO2 of 50 mmHg suggests respiratory acidosis as the body is retaining carbon dioxide, contributing to the low pH. The HCO3 is normal, indicating that there is no metabolic compensation occurring.  

 

C. Respiratory alkalosis would show a high pH and low PaCO2, which is not the case here.  

 

D. Metabolic alkalosis would present with a high pH and elevated HCO3, which is also not present in these ABG results.


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. The conversion of RNA into DNA is a critical step in the HIV lifecycle, but it does not directly lead to opportunistic infections; instead, it allows the virus to integrate into the host’s genome.

B. Having reverse transcriptase enzyme is a characteristic of retroviruses like HIV that facilitates replication, but it does not cause opportunistic infections directly.

C. HIV containing a single strand of genetic material is a feature of its classification as a retrovirus but is not related to the risk of opportunistic infections.

D. The ability of HIV to target and destroy CD4 lymphocytes is the key reason for opportunistic infections. CD4 cells are crucial for the immune response, and their depletion leads to immunosuppression, making the client susceptible to infections that would not typically affect an individual with a healthy immune system.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Administering hypertonic saline (3% NaCl) is appropriate for treating severe hyponatremia, as it helps to raise sodium levels safely. Restricting water intake is also necessary to prevent further dilution of sodium.

B. Fluid restriction with a loop diuretic may not be effective in this scenario and can worsen the hyponatremia by causing further fluid loss without addressing the sodium levels.

C. Isotonic saline is not indicated for correcting severe hyponatremia, and encouraging oral fluid intake could exacerbate the condition.

D. Increasing oral sodium intake is not sufficient for immediate correction of severe hyponatremia and does not address the acute nature of the client’s symptoms.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2025, All Right Reserved.