A patient is prescribed metoclopramide for the treatment of gastroparesis. Which of the following is a primary effect of metoclopramide?
Reduces gastric acid secretion
Enhances gastrointestinal motility
Relieves abdominal pain
Acts as an antiemetic by inhibiting serotonin
The Correct Answer is B
A. While metoclopramide may have some effect on gastric acid secretion, its primary role is not to reduce it.
B. Metoclopramide primarily enhances gastrointestinal motility, which helps to facilitate gastric emptying and is especially useful in treating conditions like gastroparesis.
C. Metoclopramide does not specifically relieve abdominal pain; it focuses more on motility and nausea.
D. Although metoclopramide does have antiemetic properties, it primarily acts as a dopamine receptor antagonist rather than directly inhibiting serotonin.
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Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
A. The client's skin and eyes are visibly jaundiced is correct because jaundice indicates a buildup of bilirubin in the blood, which is a sign of liver dysfunction.
B. The client's AST and ALT levels are elevated is correct because elevated levels of these liver enzymes indicate hepatocellular injury, which is consistent with liver damage due to acetaminophen overdose.
C. The client's temperature is 102.5° F (39.2° C) is incorrect; while a fever can occur in various conditions, it is not specific for liver damage in this context.
D. The client has an elevated red blood cell count is incorrect; elevated red blood cell counts are not indicative of liver damage and may be related to other factors.
E. The client's eyes are sensitive to light is incorrect; photophobia is not a direct indicator of liver damage and is more related to other conditions.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. An INR of 5.0 indicates a significantly increased risk of bleeding, and administering vitamin K is the appropriate antidote for reversing the effects of warfarin. This is a critical intervention to restore coagulation.
B. Increasing the dose of warfarin is inappropriate in this scenario because the INR is already elevated; it would further increase bleeding risk.
C. While heparin can be used for anticoagulation, it is not appropriate to administer it while the INR is dangerously high without reversing the warfarin first.
D. Continuing warfarin is unsafe at this INR level due to the high risk of bleeding; monitoring for symptoms without intervention is not adequate care.