Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

A patient is prescribed long-acting insulin (glargine) for basal control of blood glucose. Which statement by the nurse is correct when educating the patient?

A.

"This insulin peaks in 2-4 hours."

B.

"You will need to take this insulin with your meals."

C.

"This insulin provides a steady level of insulin over 24 hours."

D.

"You will need to administer this insulin three times a day."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. This insulin does not peak like short-acting insulin; glargine provides a consistent release of insulin without a peak effect.  

 

B. Long-acting insulin is not meant to be taken with meals, as it provides basal control and is typically taken once daily, not with each meal.  

 

C. This statement is correct; glargine provides a steady level of insulin over 24 hours, helping to maintain consistent blood glucose levels throughout the day and night.  

 

D. Long-acting insulin is usually administered once daily, so stating that it must be given three times a day is incorrect.


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. By directly relaxing vascular smooth muscle is not how lisinopril primarily works; it does not act directly on smooth muscle but rather affects hormonal pathways.

B. By blocking aldosterone from binding to mineralocorticoid receptors is a secondary effect of the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors but not the primary action of lisinopril itself.

C. By blocking the movement of calcium ions into arterial smooth muscles describes the action of calcium channel blockers, not ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

D. By inhibiting the transformation of angiotensin I to angiotensin II is the correct answer because lisinopril inhibits the ACE enzyme, reducing the production of angiotensin II, which lowers blood pressure and decreases strain on the heart.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The combination of nitroglycerin and sildenafil can lead to severe hypotension due to the vasodilatory effects of both medications. This is the most critical adverse reaction the nurse should anticipate.

B. Bradycardia is not a direct effect of this combination; rather, hypotension is a more significant concern.

C. Chest pain may occur if hypotension leads to inadequate perfusion, but it is not a direct adverse effect of the drug interaction.

D. Nausea can occur with various medications, but it is not specifically linked to the interaction between nitroglycerin and sildenafil.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2026, All Right Reserved.