A patient is prescribed long-acting insulin (glargine) for basal control of blood glucose. Which statement by the nurse is correct when educating the patient?
"This insulin peaks in 2-4 hours."
"You will need to take this insulin with your meals."
"This insulin provides a steady level of insulin over 24 hours."
"You will need to administer this insulin three times a day."
The Correct Answer is C
A. This insulin does not peak like short-acting insulin; glargine provides a consistent release of insulin without a peak effect.
B. Long-acting insulin is not meant to be taken with meals, as it provides basal control and is typically taken once daily, not with each meal.
C. This statement is correct; glargine provides a steady level of insulin over 24 hours, helping to maintain consistent blood glucose levels throughout the day and night.
D. Long-acting insulin is usually administered once daily, so stating that it must be given three times a day is incorrect.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
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C. Opioid withdrawal symptoms can occur when a client who is dependent on full agonist opioids is given an agonist-antagonist, as these medications can displace the agonist from receptors, leading to withdrawal.
D. Hypotension is a possible side effect of opioids but is not a specific concern with the use of agonist-antagonists in the context of opioid therapy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A drug that binds tightly to protein is typically released slowly, not quickly, as it remains bound in circulation.
B. Tight binding to proteins usually results in a prolonged duration of action since the drug is released gradually into the bloodstream, leading to sustained therapeutic effects.
C. Drugs that bind tightly to protein are generally not excreted quickly; they remain in circulation longer due to the binding.
D. While toxicity can occur with any drug, tight protein binding does not inherently lead to toxicity; it primarily affects the pharmacokinetics of the drug.