A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for a client who delivered vaginally 3 hr ago. Which of the following manifestations is a possible indication of postpartum hemorrhage?
Apical pulse 66/min.
Temperature 38.3 C (101° F).
Blood pressure 156/80 mm Hg.
Respiratory rate 32/min.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
An apical pulse of 66/min is within the normal range and not indicative of postpartum hemorrhage, which would typically cause an elevated heart rate due to blood loss.
Choice B rationale
A temperature of 38.3°C (101°F) could indicate infection or inflammation but is not a direct sign of postpartum hemorrhage, which primarily involves significant blood loss.
Choice C rationale
Blood pressure of 156/80 mm Hg is elevated but not directly indicative of postpartum hemorrhage, which would typically result in a drop in blood pressure due to loss of blood volume.
Choice D rationale
A respiratory rate of 32/min is significantly elevated and can be a compensatory response to hypovolemia from postpartum hemorrhage. This response occurs as the body tries to increase oxygen delivery due to blood loss.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Auscultating fetal heart tones during a contraction does not provide a clear assessment of the fetal heart rate pattern and can be affected by the contraction itself.
Choice B rationale
Placing a Doppler ultrasound over the fundus is not effective, as the fundus is not the optimal location to hear fetal heart tones, especially in early labor.
Choice C rationale
Performing Leopold maneuvers to determine fetal position is crucial as it helps in placing the Doppler in the correct position for accurate monitoring of fetal heart tones.
Choice D rationale
Counting the fetal heart rate for 15 seconds and then multiplying by 4 may not provide an accurate assessment of the fetal heart rate pattern or variability, which is important for fetal well-being assessment. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
"You will be tested again for GBS at about 36 weeks of gestation.”. This is correct because retesting for GBS at 35-37 weeks of gestation is standard practice to identify colonization status before delivery, which helps in planning intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis.
Choice B rationale
"If you test positive for GBS, the provider will need to perform a cesarean birth.”. This is incorrect because GBS colonization is not an indication for cesarean delivery. The primary intervention is antibiotic administration during labor to prevent neonatal infection.
Choice C rationale
"You will take an antibiotic during the last 2 weeks of pregnancy to avoid transferring GBS to your baby.”. This is incorrect because antibiotics are given intrapartum (during labor) to prevent GBS transmission, not during the last weeks of pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
"This infection can cause your baby to experience hearing loss at birth.”. This is incorrect because GBS infection primarily causes sepsis, pneumonia, and meningitis in neonates, not hearing loss.