A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for a client who delivered vaginally 3 hr ago. Which of the following manifestations is a possible indication of postpartum hemorrhage?
Apical pulse 66/min.
Temperature 38.3 C (101° F).
Blood pressure 156/80 mm Hg.
Respiratory rate 32/min.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
An apical pulse of 66/min is within the normal range and not indicative of postpartum hemorrhage, which would typically cause an elevated heart rate due to blood loss.
Choice B rationale
A temperature of 38.3°C (101°F) could indicate infection or inflammation but is not a direct sign of postpartum hemorrhage, which primarily involves significant blood loss.
Choice C rationale
Blood pressure of 156/80 mm Hg is elevated but not directly indicative of postpartum hemorrhage, which would typically result in a drop in blood pressure due to loss of blood volume.
Choice D rationale
A respiratory rate of 32/min is significantly elevated and can be a compensatory response to hypovolemia from postpartum hemorrhage. This response occurs as the body tries to increase oxygen delivery due to blood loss.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Maternal age of 21 years is not considered a significant risk factor for gestational diabetes. Typically, advanced maternal age (35 years or older) is considered a risk factor due to changes in insulin resistance that occur with age.
Choice B rationale
A fasting blood glucose of 72 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not indicate a risk for gestational diabetes. Gestational diabetes is usually diagnosed with fasting blood glucose levels higher than 95 mg/dL.
Choice C rationale
Previous newborn weighing 4.8 kg is a significant risk factor for gestational diabetes. Having a macrosomic (large) baby in a previous pregnancy is linked with an increased risk of developing gestational diabetes in subsequent pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
A prepregnancy BMI of 23 is within the normal range (18.5-24.9) and does not increase the risk of gestational diabetes. Higher BMI levels, particularly above 25, are associated with an increased risk.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
History of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is not directly related to the use of a cervical cap. The main concern with a cervical cap is infection, but MRSA history alone doesn't make it a contraindication for this form of contraception.
Choice B rationale
History of thrombophlebitis is more of a concern with hormonal contraceptives due to the risk of blood clots. A cervical cap does not involve hormones, so this condition is not a direct contraindication.
Choice C rationale
History of toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a contraindication for the use of a cervical cap because the cap can increase the risk of developing TSS again. TSS is associated with prolonged use of barrier contraceptives, which can create an environment that fosters the growth of bacteria responsible for TSS.
Choice D rationale
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is not a direct contraindication for the use of a cervical cap. The concern with diabetes is often related to blood glucose control and potential infections, but it doesn't specifically contraindicate the use of cervical caps.