A nurse on an obstetrics-gynecology unit is planning care for four clients after receiving change of shift report. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who is 4 days postpartum and has mastitis
A client who had a bilateral tubal ligation 12 hr previously
A client admitted 1 hr ago for an ectopic pregnancy
A client who is a 1 day postpartum after a late term miscarriage
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. A client who is 4 days postpartum and has mastitis should be assessed, but this condition is less acute compared to the others.
B. A client who had a bilateral tubal ligation 12 hr previously requires post-operative monitoring, but this is less urgent than the client with an ectopic pregnancy.
C. A client admitted 1 hr ago for an ectopic pregnancy is the priority as this condition can be life-threatening and requires immediate assessment.
D. A client who is 1 day postpartum after a late-term miscarriage requires care, but the immediacy is less than that of the ectopic pregnancy client.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. "Whether or not I am a good lover is irrelevant." does not directly address the inappropriate nature of the comment.
B. "Let's talk about something else." avoids the issue without addressing the inappropriateness of the behavior.
C. "You need to lower your voice. Others can hear you." addresses the volume but not the content of the comment.
D. "Speaking to me like that makes me uncomfortable." directly addresses the inappropriate behavior and communicates the impact on the nurse, which is the most appropriate response.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. A client who reports pain as 4 on a scale of 1 to 10 at 0800 now reports pain as 6 needs pain management, but this is less urgent compared to potential signs of hypotension.
B. A client whose wound drainage at 0800 was sanguineous and now it is serosanguineous indicates normal progression of wound healing; thus, it is less critical.
C. A client who has a prescription for insulin and his premeal capillary blood glucose was 110 mg/dL and his post-meal capillary blood glucose is now 160 mg/dL needs blood glucose management, but this is less urgent than assessing for potential hypovolemia or shock.
D. A client whose blood pressure at 0800 was 138/86 mm Hg and at 1200 is 106/60 mm Hg is experiencing a significant drop in blood pressure, which could indicate hypovolemia or shock. This requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent complications.