A nurse massages the uterus of a postpartum woman after making a hypothesis of uterine atony.
Which of the following outcomes would indicate that the client's condition had improved?
Decreased pain level.
Stable blood pressure.
Fundus firm at or below the umbilicus.
Reduced lochial flow.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Decreased pain level can be an effect of addressing the cause of pain, but it doesn't indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of atony.
Choice B rationale
Stable blood pressure is important, but it is not the direct outcome of improved uterine tone or the resolution of uterine atony.
Choice C rationale
A firm fundus at or below the umbilicus indicates successful contraction of the uterus, resolving uterine atony and reducing bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Reduced lochial flow can indicate decreased bleeding, but it does not directly indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of uterine atony.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A low transverse uterine scar is considered the safest type of uterine incision for a VBAC because it is less likely to rupture compared to other types of scars. Therefore, a low transverse uterine scar would not disqualify the patient for VBAC.
Choice B rationale
Patient asking multiple questions does not disqualify her for VBAC. Patient education and ensuring the patient’s understanding and agreement with the procedure is an essential part of the process.
Choice C rationale
Induction of labor in the first pregnancy does not automatically disqualify a patient from attempting VBAC. The success of VBAC depends on multiple factors including the reason for the initial cesarean section.
Choice D rationale
A cesarean due to pelvic abnormalities would disqualify the patient for VBAC because the underlying pelvic condition that necessitated the initial cesarean section is likely still present and would increase the risk of complications during vaginal birth.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Assessing for vaginal bleeding in PPROM is generally not necessary unless there is an indication of placental issues or other complications. PPROM involves the rupture of
membranes before 37 weeks, primarily requiring monitoring for infection and fetal wellbeing rather than routine bleeding checks.
Choice B rationale
Monitoring for signs of infection is critical after PPROM because the rupture increases the risk of ascending infections. The nurse should diligently assess for fever, foul-smelling
discharge, and other signs of infection to initiate timely interventions, preserving both maternal and fetal health.
Choice C rationale
Checking for cervical dilation in PPROM is important because premature rupture of membranes can lead to preterm labor. Monitoring dilation helps determine if labor is imminent,
influencing decisions regarding maternal and neonatal care to prevent complications from premature birth.
Choice D rationale
Watching for fetal compromise is necessary following PPROM as premature rupture of membranes can lead to umbilical cord compression or other complications affecting fetal oxygenation. Continuous fetal monitoring helps detect early signs of distress, allowing timely intervention to ensure fetal safety.