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A nurse massages the uterus of a postpartum woman after making a hypothesis of uterine atony.
Which of the following outcomes would indicate that the client's condition had improved?

A.

Decreased pain level.

B.

Stable blood pressure.

C.

Fundus firm at or below the umbilicus.

D.

Reduced lochial flow.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

Decreased pain level can be an effect of addressing the cause of pain, but it doesn't indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of atony.

 

Choice B rationale

Stable blood pressure is important, but it is not the direct outcome of improved uterine tone or the resolution of uterine atony.

 

Choice C rationale

A firm fundus at or below the umbilicus indicates successful contraction of the uterus, resolving uterine atony and reducing bleeding.

 

Choice D rationale

Reduced lochial flow can indicate decreased bleeding, but it does not directly indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of uterine atony.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the

likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.

Choice B rationale

A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications

associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.

Choice C rationale

A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to

complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.

Choice D rationale

A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative

risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Placing a pacifier in the baby's mouth is inappropriate because it does not address the underlying cause of grunting, which can be a sign of respiratory distress.

Choice B rationale

Checking the baby's diaper is not relevant to assessing the cause of grunting. Grunting is usually related to respiratory issues rather than a dirty diaper.

Choice C rationale

Having the mother feed the baby is inappropriate because grunting may indicate respiratory distress. Feeding should be deferred until the baby's respiratory status is assessed and stabilized.

Choice D rationale

Assessing the respiratory rate is appropriate because grunting in a newborn can indicate respiratory distress. The nurse should evaluate the respiratory status to determine the need for further intervention.

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