A nurse massages the uterus of a postpartum woman after making a hypothesis of uterine atony.
Which of the following outcomes would indicate that the client's condition had improved?
Decreased pain level.
Stable blood pressure.
Fundus firm at or below the umbilicus.
Reduced lochial flow.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Decreased pain level can be an effect of addressing the cause of pain, but it doesn't indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of atony.
Choice B rationale
Stable blood pressure is important, but it is not the direct outcome of improved uterine tone or the resolution of uterine atony.
Choice C rationale
A firm fundus at or below the umbilicus indicates successful contraction of the uterus, resolving uterine atony and reducing bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Reduced lochial flow can indicate decreased bleeding, but it does not directly indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of uterine atony.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Magnesium sulfate is not given to increase diuresis; this is not its primary effect and is incorrect in the context of treating preeclampsia.
Choice B rationale
Magnesium sulfate is administered to prevent seizures in patients with preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and helps in preventing eclampsia.
Choice C rationale
Although magnesium sulfate may have a mild effect on reducing blood pressure due to its vasodilatory properties, this is not its primary purpose in the management of preeclampsia.
Choice D rationale
Magnesium sulfate is not used to slow the process of labor; its main role is seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 15-year-old, G3 P0020, although young, doesn't have an increased risk of uterine rupture related to prior surgical deliveries or other known factors.
Choice B rationale
A 22-year-old, G1 P0000 with eclampsia requires close monitoring for complications related to eclampsia but not specifically for uterine rupture.
Choice C rationale
A 25-year-old, G4 P3003 with a previous cesarean section is at increased risk for uterine rupture due to the scar from the prior surgery which could weaken under the stress of labor.
Choice D rationale
A 32-year-old, G2 P0100's history of a prior fetal demise does not specifically increase the risk of uterine rupture unless accompanied by other risk factors. .