A nurse manager is preparing a newly licensed nurse's performance appraisal. Which of the following methods should the nurse manager use to evaluate the nurse's time management skills?
Compare the nurse's time management skills to the skills of coworkers.
Review client satisfaction reports about the nurse's performance.
Maintain regular notes about the nurse's time management skills.
Ask another staff nurse to evaluate the nurse's time management skills.
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Comparing the nurse's skills to coworkers may not provide an accurate evaluation as it can vary based on individual roles and responsibilities.
B. While client satisfaction reports can reflect overall performance, they may not specifically address time management skills.
C. Maintaining regular notes about the nurse's time management skills allows for ongoing assessment and provides concrete examples during the appraisal, making it the most effective method.
D. Asking another staff nurse for evaluation can introduce bias and may not provide a comprehensive view of the nurse's time management skills.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale
A. Contact precautions are appropriate for MRSA to prevent the transmission of bacteria through direct or indirect contact with the infected area. This includes wearing gloves and gowns when caring for the client and ensuring proper hand hygiene.
B. Droplet precautions are used for pathogens that are spread through respiratory droplets, which is not applicable to MRSA.
C. Protective equipment is typically used for immunocompromised patients to prevent infections, but it is not the standard for MRSA.
D. Airborne precautions are necessary for diseases that spread through airborne particles, which does not include MRSA.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Withholding the next dose of warfarin may not be necessary at this point, as the INR is elevated but not critically high. Monitoring is essential, but vitamin K administration is indicated if the INR exceeds therapeutic levels significantly.
B. Withholding the heparin infusion is not appropriate since the aPTT is critically elevated, indicating that the client is at risk for bleeding. Heparin should be adjusted, but not entirely withheld without further evaluation.
C. Preparing to administer vitamin K is appropriate because the INR is elevated (1.8), indicating an increased risk for bleeding. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin.
D. Preparing to administer alteplase (a thrombolytic) is unnecessary and inappropriate in this situation, as the client is already receiving anticoagulation therapy with heparin and warfarin.