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A nurse makes the following observations when admitting a full-term, breastfeeding baby into the neonatal nursery: 9 lb 2 oz (4,139 grams), 21 inches long, TPR 96.6°F (35.9°C), 158, 62, jittery, pink body with bluish hands and feet, crying.
Which of the following nursing actions is of highest importance?

A.

Swaddle the baby to provide warmth.

B.

Assess the glucose level of the baby.

C.

Take the baby to the mother for feeding.

D.

Administer the routine neonatal medications.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Swaddling provides warmth but doesn't address jitteriness, which may be due to hypoglycemia.

 

Choice B rationale

Jitteriness in a newborn can indicate hypoglycemia. Prompt glucose assessment is crucial for early detection and management.

 

Choice C rationale

Feeding could help with glucose levels, but without knowing the glucose status, it might not be the immediate priority.

 

Choice D rationale

Routine medications are important but not as urgent as addressing possible hypoglycemia in a jittery baby.


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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the

likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.

Choice B rationale

A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications

associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.

Choice C rationale

A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to

complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.

Choice D rationale

A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative

risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While massaging the fundus and ensuring IV access are correct initial actions, methylergonovine (Methergine) is typically used for patients without hypertensive history due to its

potential to raise blood pressure.

Choice B rationale

This option correctly identifies initial steps and appropriate medication. Carboprost-tromethamine (Hemabate) is effective in controlling postpartum hemorrhage and can be safely

used in patients with hypertension when oxytocin is insufficient.

Choice C rationale

Quantifying blood loss is essential but it is not an immediate priority when the patient is showing signs of significant bleeding and instability. Immediate intervention to control bleeding

takes precedence.

Choice D rationale

Assisting the patient to the restroom and then massaging the fundus overlooks the immediate need to control bleeding. This approach may delay necessary treatment and increase

the risk of further hemorrhage.

Choice E rationale

Straight catheterization and oxytocin maintenance are part of the management of postpartum hemorrhage but do not address the immediate need to ensure uterine contraction and

control active bleeding as effectively as the initial steps outlined in Choice B. .

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