A nurse is working with a community at risk for flooding. The nurse is aware that identification of at-risk populations, education of the residents about evacuation routes, and emergency shelters is an example of what level of the National Response Framework?
Security phase
Mitigation phase
Response phase
Practice phase
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
The security phase is not a recognized phase in the National Response Framework. The framework focuses on preparedness, response, recovery, and mitigation phases. Security measures are integrated into these phases but are not a standalone phase.
Choice B reason:
The mitigation phase involves actions taken to reduce the impact of disasters before they occur. This includes identifying at-risk populations, educating residents about evacuation routes, and establishing emergency shelters. These proactive measures help minimize the potential damage and enhance community resilience.
Choice C reason:
The response phase involves actions taken during and immediately after a disaster to ensure safety and provide emergency assistance. While important, the activities described in the question are more aligned with mitigation efforts that occur before a disaster strikes.
Choice D reason:
The practice phase is not a recognized phase in the National Response Framework. However, preparedness activities, including drills and exercises, are part of the overall framework to ensure readiness for potential disasters.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment of disease to halt its progression. Examples include screening tests and early interventions. Advising a client with osteoporosis to consume dairy products is not aimed at early detection but rather at preventing the onset of complications by ensuring adequate calcium intake.
Choice B reason:
Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of disease or injury before it occurs. This includes measures such as vaccinations, lifestyle modifications, and dietary recommendations. Advising a client with osteoporosis to consume three servings of milk or dairy products daily is a primary prevention strategy. It helps to maintain bone density and prevent fractures by ensuring adequate calcium and vitamin D intake.
Choice C reason:
Proactive prevention is not a standard term used in public health or medical practice. The recognized levels of prevention are primary, secondary, and tertiary. Therefore, this option is not applicable in this context.
Choice D reason:
Tertiary prevention focuses on managing and mitigating the effects of an existing disease to prevent further complications and improve quality of life. This includes rehabilitation and ongoing treatment for chronic conditions. While advising a client with osteoporosis to consume dairy products can be part of managing the condition, it is primarily a preventive measure to avoid further bone loss and fractures, aligning more with primary prevention.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Inserting a padded tongue blade into the client’s mouth is not recommended and can be dangerous. During a seizure, there is a risk of causing injury to the client’s mouth or teeth, and it can also obstruct the airway. The correct approach is to ensure the client’s safety by preventing injury, not by inserting objects into their mouth.
Choice B reason:
Restraining the client during a seizure is not advised. Restraints can cause additional harm and do not prevent the seizure from occurring. Instead, the focus should be on protecting the client from injury by ensuring a safe environment and allowing the seizure to run its course.
Choice C reason:
Moving objects away from the client is a crucial step in ensuring their safety during a seizure. This action helps prevent the client from hitting or injuring themselves on nearby objects. Creating a safe space around the client is one of the primary goals during a seizure to minimize the risk of injury.
Choice D reason:
Placing the client on their back is not recommended during a seizure. Instead, the client should be placed on their side if possible, to help keep the airway clear and reduce the risk of aspiration. This position also allows for better monitoring of the client’s breathing and overall condition.