A nurse is working with a community at risk for flooding. The nurse is aware that identification of at-risk populations, education of the residents about evacuation routes, and emergency shelters is an example of what level of the National Response Framework?
Security phase
Mitigation phase
Response phase
Practice phase
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
The security phase is not a recognized phase in the National Response Framework. The framework focuses on preparedness, response, recovery, and mitigation phases. Security measures are integrated into these phases but are not a standalone phase.
Choice B reason:
The mitigation phase involves actions taken to reduce the impact of disasters before they occur. This includes identifying at-risk populations, educating residents about evacuation routes, and establishing emergency shelters. These proactive measures help minimize the potential damage and enhance community resilience.
Choice C reason:
The response phase involves actions taken during and immediately after a disaster to ensure safety and provide emergency assistance. While important, the activities described in the question are more aligned with mitigation efforts that occur before a disaster strikes.
Choice D reason:
The practice phase is not a recognized phase in the National Response Framework. However, preparedness activities, including drills and exercises, are part of the overall framework to ensure readiness for potential disasters.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice a reason:
A negative-pressure isolation room is designed to prevent the spread of airborne infectious diseases by ensuring that air flows into the room but not out of it. This type of room is typically used for patients with diseases such as tuberculosis, measles, or COVID-19, which are spread through airborne particles. Scabies, however, is spread through direct skin-to-skin contact or by sharing personal items like bedding or clothing. Therefore, a negative-pressure isolation room is not necessary for a patient with scabies, as the primary mode of transmission is not airborne.
Choice b reason:
A private room is the most appropriate setting for a client with scabies. Scabies is highly contagious and can spread through direct skin-to-skin contact or by sharing personal items. Placing the client in a private room helps to prevent the spread of the mites to other patients and staff. In a private room, the client can be isolated effectively, and healthcare workers can implement contact precautions, such as wearing gloves and gowns, to minimize the risk of transmission. This approach ensures that the client receives appropriate care while protecting others from potential exposure.
Choice c reason:
A semi-private room with a client who has pediculosis capitis (head lice) is not suitable for a client with scabies. Although both conditions involve infestations, they are caused by different parasites and have different modes of transmission. Pediculosis capitis is spread through direct contact with infested hair or personal items, while scabies is spread through prolonged skin-to-skin contact. Placing a client with scabies in a semi-private room with another infested patient increases the risk of cross-contamination and further spread of both conditions. Therefore, this option is not recommended.
Choice d reason:
A positive-pressure isolation room is designed to protect immunocompromised patients from airborne pathogens by ensuring that air flows out of the room but not into it. This type of room is used for patients who need to be protected from infections, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or with severe immune deficiencies. Since scabies is not an airborne disease and does not pose a risk to immunocompromised patients in this manner, a positive-pressure isolation room is not appropriate for a client with scabies. The primary concern with scabies is preventing direct contact transmission, which is best managed in a private room.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Limiting fluid intake to prevent incontinence is not recommended as it can lead to dehydration and other complications. Proper hydration is essential for overall health, and other strategies should be used to manage incontinence.
Choice B reason:
Administration of antispasmodic medication can help manage bladder spasms and incontinence, but it is not the highest priority intervention. While medication can be part of the treatment plan, preventing skin breakdown is more critical in the immediate care of a client with reflex incontinence.
Choice C reason:
Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor can be beneficial for managing incontinence, but they may not be effective for clients with paralysis following a spinal cord injury. These exercises require voluntary muscle control, which may be impaired in such clients.
Choice D reason:
Regular perineal care to prevent skin breakdown is the highest priority intervention for a client with reflex incontinence. Incontinence can lead to skin irritation, breakdown, and infection if not managed properly. Ensuring good perineal hygiene helps prevent these complications and promotes overall skin health.