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A nurse is teaching a patient newly diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease about the pathophysiology of the condition. Which of the following explanations best describes the underlying cause of Parkinson's disease?

A.

Inflammation of the motor cortex leads to decreased coordination and balance

B.

Degeneration of dopamine producing neurons in the substantia nigra of the brain leads to motor dysfunction

C.

A loss of acetylcholine in the brain leads to memory problems and cognitive decline.

D.

Excess production of dopamine in the basal ganglia leads to tremors and muscle rigidity.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Inflammation of the motor cortex leads to decreased coordination and balance. Parkinson’s disease is not caused by inflammation in the motor cortex; it primarily involves the loss of dopamine-producing neurons.

 

B. Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra of the brain leads to motor dysfunction. Parkinson’s disease is caused by the degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra, leading to motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

 

C. A loss of acetylcholine in the brain leads to memory problems and cognitive decline. While a loss of acetylcholine is associated with Alzheimer’s disease, it is not the primary issue in Parkinson’s disease.

 

D. Excess production of dopamine in the basal ganglia leads to tremors and muscle rigidity. In Parkinson’s disease, there is a decrease, not an excess, in dopamine production, which contributes to motor symptoms.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Otosclerosis. Otosclerosis is a common cause of conductive hearing loss, typically due to abnormal bone growth around the stapes in the middle ear.

B. Acoustic neuroma. Acoustic neuroma is associated with sensorineural hearing loss, not conductive hearing loss.

C. Meniere's disease. Meniere's disease usually causes sensorineural hearing loss, often accompanied by vertigo and tinnitus.

D. Presbycusis. Presbycusis is age-related sensorineural hearing loss and does not result in conductive hearing loss.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Initiate intravenous fluid therapy. While fluid therapy is essential to support circulation and reduce the risk of shock, oxygenation takes priority in fat embolism management.

B. Prepare the client for emergency surgery. Surgery is not typically the first-line intervention for fat embolism; management focuses on supportive care, particularly respiratory support.

C. Administer high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. High-flow oxygen is the first priority to address hypoxia caused by fat embolism and should be administered immediately to maintain adequate oxygenation.

D. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs). SCDs are used to prevent venous thromboembolism, but they do not help with the treatment of fat embolism.

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