A nurse is teaching a patient newly diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease about the pathophysiology of the condition. Which of the following explanations best describes the underlying cause of Parkinson's disease?
Inflammation of the motor cortex leads to decreased coordination and balance
Degeneration of dopamine producing neurons in the substantia nigra of the brain leads to motor dysfunction
A loss of acetylcholine in the brain leads to memory problems and cognitive decline.
Excess production of dopamine in the basal ganglia leads to tremors and muscle rigidity.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Inflammation of the motor cortex leads to decreased coordination and balance. Parkinson’s disease is not caused by inflammation in the motor cortex; it primarily involves the loss of dopamine-producing neurons.
B. Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra of the brain leads to motor dysfunction. Parkinson’s disease is caused by the degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra, leading to motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
C. A loss of acetylcholine in the brain leads to memory problems and cognitive decline. While a loss of acetylcholine is associated with Alzheimer’s disease, it is not the primary issue in Parkinson’s disease.
D. Excess production of dopamine in the basal ganglia leads to tremors and muscle rigidity. In Parkinson’s disease, there is a decrease, not an excess, in dopamine production, which contributes to motor symptoms.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Stroke: The sudden onset of one-sided weakness, numbness, difficulty speaking, and severe headache are classic symptoms of an acute stroke, where blood flow to part of the brain is interrupted, leading to neurological deficits.
B. Migraine: While migraines can cause headache and some neurological symptoms, they usually include visual disturbances, nausea, or photophobia rather than one-sided weakness and numbness.
C. Hypoglycemia: Hypoglycemia can cause confusion, weakness, and headache, but it typically lacks the focal neurological symptoms, like one-sided weakness and numbness.
D. Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA): A TIA can cause similar symptoms, but the deficits are usually transient and resolve within 24 hours without lasting neurological damage. Persistent symptoms are more indicative of a stroke.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Irritable bowel syndrome. IBS management typically involves dietary changes, fiber, and stress management, not antibiotics or clear liquids.
B. Chronic diverticulosis. Diverticulosis, when asymptomatic, does not require antibiotics. Treatment focuses on a high-fiber diet to prevent diverticulitis.
C. Complicated diverticulitis with abscess. Complicated diverticulitis may require IV antibiotics, hospitalization, or even surgical intervention if there are abscesses.
D. Uncomplicated diverticulitis. Uncomplicated diverticulitis, without abscess or perforation, is treated with oral antibiotics and a clear liquid diet for bowel rest.