A nurse is teaching a patient newly diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease about the pathophysiology of the condition. Which of the following explanations best describes the underlying cause of Parkinson's disease?
Inflammation of the motor cortex leads to decreased coordination and balance
Degeneration of dopamine producing neurons in the substantia nigra of the brain leads to motor dysfunction
A loss of acetylcholine in the brain leads to memory problems and cognitive decline.
Excess production of dopamine in the basal ganglia leads to tremors and muscle rigidity.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Inflammation of the motor cortex leads to decreased coordination and balance. Parkinson’s disease is not caused by inflammation in the motor cortex; it primarily involves the loss of dopamine-producing neurons.
B. Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra of the brain leads to motor dysfunction. Parkinson’s disease is caused by the degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra, leading to motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
C. A loss of acetylcholine in the brain leads to memory problems and cognitive decline. While a loss of acetylcholine is associated with Alzheimer’s disease, it is not the primary issue in Parkinson’s disease.
D. Excess production of dopamine in the basal ganglia leads to tremors and muscle rigidity. In Parkinson’s disease, there is a decrease, not an excess, in dopamine production, which contributes to motor symptoms.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The client states that they consume a high calcium diet and have had high calcium in their blood. A high calcium diet or hypercalcemia is more associated with kidney stones, not typically with pyelonephritis.
B. The client reports that they had two urinary tract infections (UTI) in the past months. Recurrent UTIs are a risk factor for pyelonephritis, as untreated or recurrent infections can ascend from the bladder to the kidneys, leading to this condition.
C. The client states that they remember their mother saying their grandma had this same genetic disease. Pyelonephritis is not typically a genetic disease but rather an infection of the kidneys, often secondary to urinary tract infections.
D. The client reports that they took a lot of ibuprofen for arthritis for many years. Long-term NSAID use can impact kidney function but does not directly cause pyelonephritis.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Encourage the client to walk on the injured ankle to promote circulation. Weight-bearing activities should be avoided initially after a Grade II sprain to prevent further injury.
B. Immerse the ankle in warm water immediately after the injury. Ice, rather than warmth, is recommended immediately following an injury to reduce swelling and inflammation.
C. Apply ice to the affected ankle for the first 24-72 hours. Applying ice for 24-72 hours helps reduce swelling and pain by causing vasoconstriction and controlling inflammation in the acute phase.
D. Perform deep tissue massage on the injured area to reduce pain. Massaging a newly sprained ankle can aggravate inflammation and cause additional tissue damage.