A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about neonatal abstinence syndrome.
Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicate understanding of the teaching?
"The newborn will have decreased muscle tone.”.
"The newborn will have a continuous high-pitched cry.”.
"The newborn will sleep for 2 to 3 hours after a feeding.”.
"The newborn will have mild tremors when disturbed.”.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Decreased muscle tone is not typically associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS). Instead, NAS often presents with hypertonia or increased muscle tone due to
withdrawal symptoms.
Choice B rationale
A continuous high-pitched cry is a hallmark sign of NAS, indicating the newborn is experiencing withdrawal and discomfort. This symptom results from the overstimulation of the
central nervous system.
Choice C rationale
Newborns with NAS often have difficulty sleeping and may sleep for shorter periods due to irritability and discomfort. Prolonged sleep after feeding is not characteristic of NAS.
Choice D rationale
Tremors in newborns with NAS are usually pronounced and continuous, not just when disturbed. These tremors are a result of withdrawal effects on the nervous system.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 37-year-old patient with obesity and pregnancy-induced hypertension presents multiple risk factors. Advanced maternal age, obesity, and hypertension collectively increase the
likelihood of complications such as preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and cesarean delivery, necessitating close monitoring and management.
Choice B rationale
A patient with preexisting hypertension and twins is indeed high-risk due to the combined strain on the cardiovascular system and potential for preterm labor or other complications
associated with multiple gestations. However, the presence of pregnancy-induced hypertension and obesity in the first patient poses a slightly higher cumulative risk.
Choice C rationale
A 16-year-old patient with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes is at increased risk, particularly because of age and the potential for poorly managed diabetes leading to
complications. However, this scenario presents fewer immediate cumulative risks compared to older age and existing hypertension.
Choice D rationale
A 28-year-old patient who had a premature birth three years prior must be monitored for signs of recurrent preterm labor. Yet, this history alone does not present as high a cumulative
risk as older maternal age, obesity, and pregnancy-induced hypertension. .
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While massaging the fundus and ensuring IV access are correct initial actions, methylergonovine (Methergine) is typically used for patients without hypertensive history due to its
potential to raise blood pressure.
Choice B rationale
This option correctly identifies initial steps and appropriate medication. Carboprost-tromethamine (Hemabate) is effective in controlling postpartum hemorrhage and can be safely
used in patients with hypertension when oxytocin is insufficient.
Choice C rationale
Quantifying blood loss is essential but it is not an immediate priority when the patient is showing signs of significant bleeding and instability. Immediate intervention to control bleeding
takes precedence.
Choice D rationale
Assisting the patient to the restroom and then massaging the fundus overlooks the immediate need to control bleeding. This approach may delay necessary treatment and increase
the risk of further hemorrhage.
Choice E rationale
Straight catheterization and oxytocin maintenance are part of the management of postpartum hemorrhage but do not address the immediate need to ensure uterine contraction and
control active bleeding as effectively as the initial steps outlined in Choice B. .