A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about limiting foods that are high in potassium. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid? (Select all that apply)
Raisins
Asparagus
Bananas
Tomatoes
Green Beans
Correct Answer : A,C,D
Choice A reason:
Raisins are dried grapes and are known to have a higher concentration of nutrients, including potassium. For individuals with chronic kidney disease (CKD), consuming foods like raisins that are high in potassium can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition where potassium levels in the blood are higher than normal. This can be dangerous as it may cause heart rhythm problems.
Choice B reason:
Asparagus is considered a lower-potassium food, making it a safer choice for people with CKD. It's important for individuals with CKD to manage their potassium intake, but asparagus can be included in their diet in appropriate portions.
Choice C reason:
Bananas are well-known for being rich in potassium. For someone with CKD, eating bananas can contribute to an excessive intake of potassium, which their kidneys may not be able to eliminate efficiently, potentially leading to hyperkalemia.
Choice D reason:
Tomatoes, including tomato products like sauces, juices, and purees, are high in potassium. Therefore, they should be limited or avoided in the diet of a person with CKD to prevent complications associated with high potassium levels.
Choice E reason:
Green beans are considered to be a lower-potassium vegetable. They can be included in a kidney-friendly diet, provided they are consumed in moderation and balanced with other dietary needs.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Measuring the circumference of the thigh can be part of the assessment for swelling or edema, which may indicate compartment syndrome or other issues. However, it is not a direct measure of neurovascular status, which focuses on blood flow and nerve function.
Choice B reason:
Palpating the femoral pulse is important for assessing blood flow to the leg, but for a midshaft femur fracture, more distal pulses such as the popliteal, dorsalis pedis, or posterior tibial pulses would be more indicative of the neurovascular status of the affected limb.
Choice C reason:
Monitoring the client's calf for edema is a useful technique for identifying signs of swelling that could suggest complications like deep vein thrombosis or compartment syndrome. However, it does not provide a complete picture of neurovascular integrity, which also includes sensory and motor function assessment.
Choice D reason:
Instructing the client to wiggle his toes is a direct assessment of motor function, which is a key component of neurovascular status. This action, along with checking for sensation and capillary refill, helps to determine if there is any impairment in nerve function or blood supply to the affected area.

Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Massaging over erythematous bony prominences is not recommended as it can cause further damage to already compromised skin. Erythema over bony prominences may indicate the beginning stages of pressure injury, and massaging these areas can increase tissue damage.
Choice B reason:
Minimizing skin exposure to moisture is essential in preventing skin breakdown. Moisture can come from sweating, incontinence, or wound drainage. Keeping the skin dry helps to maintain its integrity and prevent the development of pressure injuries.
Choice C reason:
Using pillows to keep heels off the bed surface is an effective strategy to prevent pressure ulcers on the heels, which are a common site for skin breakdown in bedridden patients. Elevating the heels offloads pressure and enhances blood circulation to the area.
Choice D reason:
Implementing a turning schedule every 4 hours may not be sufficient for some patients at high risk of skin breakdown. The current standard for turning schedules is generally every 2 hours, but this can vary based on the individual's condition and risk factors.
Choice E reason:
Keeping the client's skin dry with powder can help absorb excess moisture and prevent skin breakdown. However, care must be taken to avoid excess powder accumulation, which can also contribute to skin damage.