A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for pancrelipase to aid in digestion. The nurse should inform the client to expect which of the following gastrointestinal changes?
Decreased fat in stools
Decreased watery stools
Decreased mucus in stools
Decreased black tarry stools
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A: Decreased fat in stools
Pancrelipase is a combination of digestive enzymes, including lipase, protease, and amylase, which help break down fats, proteins, and carbohydrates. One of the primary benefits of pancrelipase is its ability to improve fat digestion and absorption. Clients with pancreatic insufficiency often experience steatorrhea, which is the presence of excess fat in stools, making them bulky, greasy, and foul-smelling. By aiding in the digestion of fats, pancrelipase reduces the fat content in stools, leading to more normal bowel movements.
Choice B: Decreased watery stools
While pancrelipase can improve overall digestion, it is not specifically known for decreasing watery stools. Watery stools can result from various conditions, including infections, inflammatory bowel disease, or other gastrointestinal disorders. Pancrelipase primarily targets the digestion of macronutrients and may not directly affect the consistency of stools unless the watery stools are due to malabsorption of fats.
Choice C: Decreased mucus in stools
Mucus in stools can be a sign of inflammation or irritation in the gastrointestinal tract, often associated with conditions like irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) or infections. Pancrelipase does not specifically target mucus production in the intestines. Its primary function is to aid in the digestion of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates, rather than addressing mucus-related issues.
Choice D: Decreased black tarry stools
Black tarry stools, also known as melena, are typically a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding, particularly from the upper GI tract. This condition requires immediate medical attention and is not related to the use of pancrelipase. Pancrelipase is not indicated for treating or preventing gastrointestinal bleeding and would not affect the presence of black tarry stools.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: A Client Who Has a Small Circular Partial-Thickness Burn of the Left Calf
A small circular partial-thickness burn of the left calf is considered a minor injury in the context of a mass casualty event. This type of injury does not pose an immediate threat to life and can be managed after more critical cases are addressed. In mass casualty triage, patients with minor injuries are often categorized as “green” or “minimal” and are treated last.
Choice B: A Client Who Has Severe Respiratory Stridor and a Deviated Trachea
A client with severe respiratory stridor and a deviated trachea should be assessed first. These symptoms indicate a potential airway obstruction, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. In mass casualty triage, patients with compromised airways are given the highest priority and are categorized as “red” or “immediate” because their condition is critical and requires urgent medical attention.
Choice C: A Client Who Has a Splinted Open Fracture of the Left Medial Malleolus
A splinted open fracture of the left medial malleolus is a serious injury but not immediately life-threatening if properly splinted. This client would be categorized as “yellow” or “delayed” in mass casualty triage, meaning they require medical attention but can wait until more critical patients are stabilized.
Choice D: A Client Who Has a Massive Head Injury and Is Experiencing Seizures
A client with a massive head injury and experiencing seizures is in a critical condition. However, in the context of mass casualty triage, the immediate priority is to secure the airway, breathing, and circulation. While this client is in dire need of medical attention, the presence of severe respiratory stridor and a deviated trachea in another client takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: Smallpox
Smallpox is a viral disease caused by the variola virus. It was eradicated globally in 1980 through a successful vaccination campaign. Treatment for smallpox primarily involves supportive care and antiviral medications, such as tecovirimat, rather than antibiotics like ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is ineffective against viral infections, including smallpox.
Choice B: Anthrax
Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis. Ciprofloxacin is one of the primary antibiotics used for the treatment and post-exposure prophylaxis of anthrax. It works by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase, which is essential for bacterial replication. Ciprofloxacin is effective against both cutaneous and inhalational forms of anthrax, making it a critical component in the management of anthrax exposure.
Choice C: Ebola virus
Ebola virus disease (EVD) is caused by the Ebola virus, a member of the Filoviridae family. Treatment for EVD primarily involves supportive care, including rehydration and management of symptoms. Antiviral medications, such as remdesivir, may also be used. Ciprofloxacin, being an antibiotic, is not effective against viral infections like Ebola.
Choice D: Sarin gas
Sarin gas is a highly toxic nerve agent used in chemical warfare. Exposure to sarin gas requires immediate medical intervention, including the administration of antidotes such as atropine and pralidoxime, as well as supportive care. Antibiotics like ciprofloxacin are not used in the treatment of chemical agent exposure, as they do not counteract the effects of nerve agents.