A nurse is screening clients for adrenal insufficiency. The nurse recognizes that which client is at greatest risk for adrenal insufficiency?
A 19-year-old male on low dose steroids for a week
A 35-year-old female who completed 3 weeks of steroids.
An 80-year-old female who takes steroids daily.
A 45-year old male with COPD who uses intermittent steroids.
The Correct Answer is C
A. A short-term, low-dose steroid use (one week) has minimal risk for adrenal suppression.
B. Three weeks of steroids increases risk, but daily use presents a higher risk.
C. Prolonged daily steroid use, especially in an older adult, poses the greatest risk for adrenal insufficiency due to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis.
D. Intermittent steroid use is less likely to cause adrenal insufficiency compared to daily long-term use.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Weight gain is not typical in Addison's disease; instead, weight loss is common.
B. Hyperpigmentation, particularly in sun-exposed areas and skin folds, is a classic symptom of Addison's disease due to elevated ACTH levels.
C. Low blood pressure, not elevated, is common due to decreased cortisol levels.
D. Purple striations are more commonly seen in Cushing's syndrome rather than Addison's disease.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Monitoring glucose levels may be necessary, as pheochromocytoma can cause hyperglycemia, but it is not the immediate priority.
B. A CT scan may be part of the diagnostic process to locate the adrenal tumor, but the priority is to control blood pressure first due to the risk of severe hypertensive crisis.
C. Serum calcium levels are not directly related to pheochromocytoma and are not a priority action.
D. Monitoring blood pressure is critical, as pheochromocytoma causes episodes of severe hypertension, which can lead to life-threatening complications.