Try our free nursing testbanks today. click here to join
Teas 7 test, Hesi A2 and Nursing prep
Nursingprepexams LEARN. PREPARE. EXCEL!
  • Home
  • Nursing
  • TEAS
  • HESI
  • Blog
Start Studying Now

Take full exam for free

A nurse is screening clients for adrenal insufficiency. The nurse recognizes that which client is at greatest risk for adrenal insufficiency?

A.

A 19-year-old male on low dose steroids for a week

B.

A 35-year-old female who completed 3 weeks of steroids.

C.

An 80-year-old female who takes steroids daily.

D.

A 45-year old male with COPD who uses intermittent steroids.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. A short-term, low-dose steroid use (one week) has minimal risk for adrenal suppression.  

 

B. Three weeks of steroids increases risk, but daily use presents a higher risk.  

 

C. Prolonged daily steroid use, especially in an older adult, poses the greatest risk for adrenal insufficiency due to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis.  

 

D. Intermittent steroid use is less likely to cause adrenal insufficiency compared to daily long-term use.


Free Nursing Test Bank

  1. Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
  2. Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
  3. Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
  4. Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
  5. Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
  6. Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
  7. Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
  8. Free Community Health Quiz 8
  9. Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
  10. Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
Take full exam free

View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Turning the client onto their operative side could increase pressure on the eye and is not an appropriate first action.

B. Administering prescribed pain medication and antiemetic is essential to address the client's severe pain and nausea, which are priority concerns in the postoperative period.

C. While it may be necessary to notify the surgeon if symptoms persist, the immediate priority is to alleviate the client's discomfort.

D. Reassuring the client that these symptoms are normal is misleading; severe pain and nausea postoperatively should be addressed promptly.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Chvostek's sign, a facial muscle spasm upon tapping, is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, often caused by accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands during thyroid surgery.

B. Hypercalcemia does not typically cause a positive Chvostek’s sign.

C. Hypokalemia affects muscle and cardiac function but does not result in a positive Chvostek’s sign.

D. Hyponatremia does not produce Chvostek's sign, which is specific to hypocalcemia.

Quick Links

Nursing Teas Hesi Blog

Resources

Nursing Test banks Teas Prep Hesi Prep Nursingprepexams Blogs
© Nursingprepexams.com @ 2019 -2025, All Right Reserved.