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A nurse is reviewing the results of a nonstress test for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following findings indicates a reactive nonstress test?

A.

Fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations occur with fetal movement.

B.

Late decelerations of the FHR occur with contractions.

C.

Variable decelerations of the FHR.

D.

FHR pattern with minimal variability.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations with fetal movement are a sign of a healthy and reactive nonstress test. This indicates that the fetus is well-oxygenated and there is no immediate distress.

 

Choice B rationale

Late decelerations of the FHR occur with contractions and are a concern for fetal hypoxia. This does not indicate a reactive nonstress test and instead suggests the need for further evaluation.

 

Choice C rationale

Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in FHR and could indicate umbilical cord compression. This does not correlate with a reactive nonstress test.

 

Choice D rationale

FHR pattern with minimal variability can be a sign of fetal distress or compromised oxygenation. It is not indicative of a reactive nonstress test.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Leukorrhea is a common and normal occurrence in pregnancy due to increased estrogen production and greater blood flow to the vaginal area. It is usually a thin, white discharge and not a cause for concern unless accompanied by itching, burning, or an unusual odor.

Choice B rationale

Excessive salivation, also known as ptyalism, can occur during pregnancy, particularly in the first trimester. It is linked to hormonal changes and is not typically harmful, though it may be uncomfortable for the patient.

Choice C rationale

Darkening of the skin on the face, known as melasma or chloasma, is common during pregnancy and is due to increased pigmentation from hormonal changes. It typically resolves postpartum and is not harmful.

Choice D rationale

Epigastric pain in a pregnant client at 33 weeks gestation can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to other organs. It requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications for both the mother and baby.

Correct Answer is ["A","B"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Blood pressure should be assessed as opioid analgesics can cause hypotension, which can be detrimental to both mother and fetus during labor.

Choice B rationale

Fetal heart rate monitoring is essential as opioids can cross the placenta and potentially cause fetal bradycardia or distress, thus necessitating close monitoring.

Choice C rationale

Deep tendon reflexes are not commonly affected by opioid analgesics and therefore are not a primary assessment when administering these medications during labor.

Choice D rationale

Blood glucose levels are not typically influenced by opioid analgesics in the context of labor, so this is not a relevant assessment for this scenario.

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