A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record (MAR) of a client who requires fluticasone MDI one puff and albuterol MDI two puffs. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? Place the following steps in the correct order. (Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in the selected order of performance. All steps must be used.)
Have the client take one puff of albuterol
Have the client rest for 1 min
Have the client take the second puff of albuterol
Have the client rest for 5 min
Have the client take one puff of fluticasone
The Correct Answer is A, B, C, D, E
Rationale:
- Administering albuterol first is crucial because it is a bronchodilator that will help open the airways before administering the anti-inflammatory fluticasone.
- The client should rest for 1 minute between puffs of albuterol to allow for the medication to take effect.
- After taking the second puff of albuterol, a longer rest of 5 minutes allows the client to experience the full effects of the bronchodilator.
- Finally, administering fluticasone afterward will help reduce inflammation in the airways, maximizing the benefit of both medications.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically decreases heart rate rather than increases it. Therefore, an increased heart rate would not be a therapeutic response to this medication.
B. Verapamil works to lower blood pressure by inhibiting calcium influx into the vascular smooth muscle. An increase in blood pressure would not be an expected therapeutic outcome.
C. While verapamil may help with heart function, the primary therapeutic response is not specifically measured by decreased pulmonary congestion. This outcome may not be directly observable in the early treatment phases post-myocardial infarction.
D. Verapamil is effective in reducing anginal pain by decreasing myocardial oxygen demand through lowering heart rate and contractility. Thus, a decrease in anginal pain would be a direct therapeutic response to the medication.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. A heart rate of 105/min is slightly elevated, but it does not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic or has other concerning signs.
B. Infiltration of the peripheral IV requires immediate intervention, as it can lead to tissue damage and prevent the medication from being effectively delivered. The nurse should stop the infusion, assess the site, and take appropriate action.
C. Increased blood pressure is a common effect of dopamine administration and does not necessarily require urgent intervention unless it becomes critically high or is associated with other adverse symptoms.
D. Occasional PVCs can occur during dopamine infusion and can be monitored unless they become frequent or symptomatic; they typically do not require immediate intervention.