A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings for a female client who is taking zidovudine to treat HIV. Which of the following should the nurse identify as an adverse finding associated with this medication?
Neutrophil count 650/mm³ (2,500 to 8,000/mm³).
Platelets 450,000/mm³ (150,000 to 400,000/mm³).
Hgb 17 g/dL (12 to 16 g/dL).
Creatinine 1.5 mg/dL (0.5 to 1 mg/dL).
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
A neutrophil count of 650/mm³ is significantly lower than the normal range (2,500 to 8,000/mm³) and indicates neutropenia, which is a known adverse effect of zidovudine. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring and potential dose adjustment or discontinuation of the medication.
Choice B rationale
A platelet count of 450,000/mm³ is slightly above the normal range (150,000 to 400,000/mm³) but is not typically associated with zidovudine toxicity. Zidovudine is more commonly associated with bone marrow suppression leading to anemia and neutropenia rather than thrombocytosis.
Choice C rationale
An Hgb level of 17 g/dL is above the normal range for females (12 to 16 g/dL) but is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Zidovudine is more likely to cause anemia, leading to lower hemoglobin levels rather than elevated levels.
Choice D rationale
A creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL is within the upper limit of the normal range (0.5 to 1 mg/dL) and is not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine. Zidovudine primarily affects the bone marrow and does not have a significant impact on renal function.
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View Related questions
Correct Answer is ["A","F"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Thrombocytopenia, a low platelet count, increases the risk of bleeding and hemorrhage when receiving heparin.
Choice B rationale
Neutropenia, a low white blood cell count, does not directly increase the risk of hemorrhage. It is more related to infection risk.
Choice C rationale
Hypokalemia, low potassium levels, does not directly indicate a risk for hemorrhage. It can cause other complications but not specifically bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Fever is not a direct indicator of hemorrhage risk. It may indicate infection or other inflammatory processes.
Choice E rationale
Hyperglycemia, high blood sugar levels, does not indicate a risk for hemorrhage. It is more related to diabetes management.
Choice F rationale
Dark stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a sign of hemorrhage.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used to control seizures and is not indicated for the treatment of adrenal insufficiency.
Choice B rationale
Calcitonin is used to treat conditions like osteoporosis and hypercalcemia, not adrenal insufficiency.
Choice C rationale
Buspirone is an anxiolytic used to treat anxiety disorders and is not used for adrenal insufficiency.
Choice D rationale
Fludrocortisone is a synthetic corticosteroid that is used to replace aldosterone in patients with adrenal insufficiency. It helps maintain sodium balance and blood pressure.