A nurse is reviewing the ABG results of a client who has COPD. The results include a pH of 7.3 (7.35 to 7.45), PaO2 56 mm Hg (80 to 100 mm Hg), PaCO2 54 mm Hg (35 to 45 mm Hg), HCO3- 26 mEq/L (21 to 28 mEq/L), and SaO2 87%. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of these values?
Compensated metabolic acidosis
Compensated respiratory acidosis
Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Compensated metabolic acidosis would show a normal pH with a decrease in HCO3- and a decrease in PaCO2.
B. Compensated respiratory acidosis would show a normal pH with an elevated PaCO2 and a compensatory increase in HCO3-.
C. The low pH indicates acidosis, and the elevated PaCO2 suggests that it is respiratory in origin, with the HCO3- remaining normal, indicating no compensation has occurred yet.
D. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis would present with a low pH, low HCO3-, and normal PaCO2.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. This response validates the client's feelings and opens the door for further conversation without judgment, encouraging the client to express more of their thoughts.
B. While this statement acknowledges the client's feelings, it may seem dismissive or minimize the depth of the client's distress.
C. Telling the client that many people experience similar feelings can invalidate the uniqueness of their grief and may discourage them from sharing more.
D. Asking "Why" may sound accusatory and could make the client feel defensive or misunderstood.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Withholding the next dose of warfarin may not be necessary at this point, as the INR is elevated but not critically high. Monitoring is essential, but vitamin K administration is indicated if the INR exceeds therapeutic levels significantly.
B. Withholding the heparin infusion is not appropriate since the aPTT is critically elevated, indicating that the client is at risk for bleeding. Heparin should be adjusted, but not entirely withheld without further evaluation.
C. Preparing to administer vitamin K is appropriate because the INR is elevated (1.8), indicating an increased risk for bleeding. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin.
D. Preparing to administer alteplase (a thrombolytic) is unnecessary and inappropriate in this situation, as the client is already receiving anticoagulation therapy with heparin and warfarin.