A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who tested positive for group B streptococcus β-hemolytic (GBS) during a prior pregnancy and is at 30 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"You will be tested again for GBS at about 36 weeks of gestation.”.
"If you test positive for GBS, the provider will need to perform a cesarean birth.”.
"You will take an antibiotic during the last 2 weeks of pregnancy to avoid transferring GBS to your baby.”.
"This infection can cause your baby to experience hearing loss at birth.”.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Testing for GBS at around 36 weeks of gestation is standard practice to identify carriers and prevent neonatal GBS infections through intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis if necessary.
Choice B rationale
Cesarean birth is not indicated solely based on a positive GBS status. The primary intervention is intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis to reduce the risk of neonatal infection.
Choice C rationale
Routine antibiotic administration during the last weeks of pregnancy is not standard practice; antibiotics are given during labor if GBS is present to prevent transmission to the baby.
Choice D rationale
GBS infection does not cause hearing loss in newborns. The primary concern is neonatal sepsis, pneumonia, or meningitis, not hearing loss.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Ensuring the client has a full bladder before the procedure is incorrect. A full bladder can cause discomfort during the pelvic examination and may obscure the pelvic organs, making the examination more challenging for the provider.
Choice B rationale
Instructing the client to bear down when the speculum is inserted is correct. Bearing down helps relax the pelvic muscles, making it easier to insert the speculum and perform the examination with minimal discomfort.
Choice C rationale
Encouraging the client to take rapid, shallow breaths during the procedure is incorrect. This can increase anxiety and tension in the pelvic muscles, making the examination more uncomfortable.
Choice D rationale
Applying povidone-iodine to the provider's fingers prior to bimanual examination is incorrect. The standard procedure involves using gloves and lubricant to prevent infection and ensure patient comfort, not povidone-iodine.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
An apical pulse of 66/min is within the normal range and not indicative of postpartum hemorrhage, which would typically cause an elevated heart rate due to blood loss.
Choice B rationale
A temperature of 38.3°C (101°F) could indicate infection or inflammation but is not a direct sign of postpartum hemorrhage, which primarily involves significant blood loss.
Choice C rationale
Blood pressure of 156/80 mm Hg is elevated but not directly indicative of postpartum hemorrhage, which would typically result in a drop in blood pressure due to loss of blood volume.
Choice D rationale
A respiratory rate of 32/min is significantly elevated and can be a compensatory response to hypovolemia from postpartum hemorrhage. This response occurs as the body tries to increase oxygen delivery due to blood loss.