A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who needs to have a cholecystectomy due to gallstones. Which of the following is the best response from the nurse to explain what caused this problem?
The gallbladder became infected by a virus and needs to be removed.
The gallbladder has become inflamed due to the cholesterol in the gallstones,
The gallbladder has become blocked by a tumor and is no longer working.
The gallbladder has become inflamed due to a build-up of gallstones that are blocking the common bile duct.
The Correct Answer is B
A. The gallbladder became infected by a virus and needs to be removed. Gallstones are not caused by viral infections; they typically develop from an imbalance in the substances that make up bile, such as cholesterol and bilirubin.
B. The gallbladder has become inflamed due to the cholesterol in the gallstones. Cholesterol is a common component of gallstones, and these stones can cause inflammation of the gallbladder (cholecystitis), leading to the need for removal.
C. The gallbladder has become blocked by a tumor and is no longer working. Tumors can obstruct the gallbladder, but this is not the cause of gallstones or the primary reason for a cholecystectomy.
D. The gallbladder has become inflamed due to a build-up of gallstones that are blocking the common bile duct. This describes choledocholithiasis, a condition where gallstones block the common bile duct, but it is not the primary cause of gallbladder inflammation requiring a cholecystectomy.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Administering mannitol intravenously: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce ICP by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and decreasing cerebral edema, making it a priority intervention.
B. Encouraging the patient to hyperventilate: Controlled hyperventilation may reduce ICP temporarily by lowering CO₂ levels and causing cerebral vasoconstriction. However, it should only be done cautiously under close monitoring, and other ICP management techniques like mannitol administration take priority.
C. Administering a high-dose corticosteroid: Corticosteroids are generally ineffective for reducing ICP in traumatic brain injury and are typically not recommended in this scenario.
D. Performing a lumbar puncture immediately: Lumbar puncture is contraindicated in cases of increased ICP because it may lead to brain herniation due to the sudden release of pressure.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is a reduction of blood flow to the kidneys. Reduced blood flow to the kidneys, or renal hypoperfusion, decreases the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) because less blood is being filtered through the kidneys. This can occur in conditions such as shock, severe dehydration, or heart failure, but it is not the primary mechanism in acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
B. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is injury to the renal tubular cells. In ATN, the injury to renal tubular cells impairs their function, leading to reduced reabsorption and filtration ability, which contributes to the decrease in GFR.
C. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because inflammatory cells invade the already damaged kidneys. While inflammation may be present, it is not the primary cause of decreased GFR in acute tubular necrosis; reduced blood flow and tubular cell injury are more direct causes.
D. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is obstruction leading to the filtration system backing up and eventually shutting the kidneys down. Obstruction is not typically a characteristic of acute tubular necrosis; ATN is usually caused by ischemic or toxic injury, not physical obstruction.