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A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. When discussing the pathology of this disease, which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A.

"Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs."

B.

"Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function."

C.

"Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron."

D.

"Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. "Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs." Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of bone marrow to produce adequate red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells, and platelets. This results in pancytopenia, which increases the risk of infections, anemia, and bleeding.

 

B. "Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function." Aplastic anemia is not related to liver function; it originates from the bone marrow’s inability to produce sufficient blood cells.

 

C. "Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron." Aplastic anemia is not caused by iron deficiency; it is primarily due to bone marrow failure. Iron deficiency anemia, on the other hand, results from a lack of iron intake or absorption.

 

D. "Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction." Increased RBC destruction is characteristic of hemolytic anemia, not aplastic anemia.


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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. 2 hr: While some patients may tolerate faster infusion rates, the maximum safe time is 4 hours, and there is no requirement to complete it in 2 hours.

B. 8 hr: Blood cannot be left out for 8 hours due to the increased risk of bacterial growth and contamination.

C. 6 hr: Infusing blood over 6 hours exceeds the safe time limit and poses a risk of bacterial contamination.

D. 4 hr: To reduce the risk of bacterial contamination, a unit of packed RBCs must be transfused within 4 hours of starting the infusion. This time frame ensures that the blood remains safe for the patient while minimizing exposure to room temperature.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Two areas of lymph nodes above and below the diaphragm: This describes stage III Hodgkin disease, where lymph node involvement occurs both above and below the diaphragm, but not necessarily in multiple organs.

B. Two or more areas on the same side of the diaphragm: This corresponds to stage II Hodgkin disease, which is limited to two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm.

C. Localized in the cervical neck area only: Stage I Hodgkin disease typically involves a single lymph node region, often the cervical nodes, without generalized or extensive spread.

D. Generalized throughout the body within multiple organs: In stage IV Hodgkin disease, the cancer has spread beyond the lymph nodes to other organs and tissues, leading to generalized lymphadenopathy and potential organ involvement.

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