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A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client who will undergo amniocentesis. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

A.

This test detects fetal genetic abnormalities.

B.

An empty bladder is required for the test.

C.

An x-ray will be taken during needle placement.

D.

This test determines the volume of amniotic fluid.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

 

Amniocentesis is used to detect fetal genetic abnormalities, such as Down syndrome, by analyzing the amniotic fluid for genetic markers.

 

Choice B rationale

 

An empty bladder is required for the test only in late pregnancy to prevent bladder injury; however, in early pregnancy, a full bladder may be required to better visualize the uterus and amniotic fluid.

 

Choice C rationale

 

An x-ray is not typically used during the needle placement for amniocentesis. Ultrasound is the preferred method to guide the needle to avoid harm to the fetus and mother.

 

Choice D rationale

 

The test does not determine the volume of amniotic fluid; it is used primarily for genetic analysis, assessing fetal lung maturity, and diagnosing certain fetal infections.

 


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Nausea can be a side effect of magnesium sulfate, but it is not a specific indication of toxicity. Other symptoms are more directly indicative of magnesium sulfate overdose.

Choice B rationale

Facial flushing is a common side effect of magnesium sulfate but is not a sign of toxicity. It typically occurs at therapeutic levels and is not a reliable indicator of overdose.

Choice C rationale

Urine output of 40 mL/hr is within normal limits for an adult and does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. However, significantly decreased urine output could be concerning.

Choice D rationale

Respiratory rate of 10/min is a critical sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression, and a rate of 10 breaths per minute or less indicates that the patient may be experiencing toxic effects, necessitating immediate medical intervention.

Correct Answer is ["B","F","G"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Deep tendon reflexes of 1+ are considered normal for a postpartum client and do not typically require immediate follow-up. They indicate slight but definite muscle contraction with reinforcement.

Choice B rationale:

Lateral deviation of the uterus can indicate bladder distension, which can interfere with uterine contraction and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Immediate follow-up is necessary to address this issue.

Choice C rationale:

A blood pressure of 136/86 mm Hg is within the normal range for a postpartum client and does not require immediate follow-up unless there are other symptoms of preeclampsia or hypertension.

Choice D rationale:

A pain rating of 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 is mild and is expected in the postpartum period. It does not require immediate follow-up unless the pain is severe or unrelieved.

Choice E rationale:

Soft breasts in the immediate postpartum period are normal as milk production has not yet fully begun. This does not require immediate follow-up.

Choice F rationale:

A soft uterine tone indicates uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. This requires immediate follow-up and intervention to ensure the uterus is contracting properly.

Choice G rationale:

A large amount of lochia rubra can be a sign of postpartum hemorrhage. Immediate follow-up is necessary to assess and manage bleeding.

Choice H rationale:

Peripheral edema of 2+ in the bilateral lower extremities is common in postpartum clients due to fluid shifts and does not typically require immediate follow-up unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

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