A nurse is receiving a report on a new postpartum admission. Her medical history includes chronic hypertension.
The client is asking about postpartum orders.
Which of the following would be contraindicated based on the client's medical history?
Methylergonovine (Methergine).
Oxytocin (Pitocin).
Carboprost (Hemabate).
Misoprostol (Cytotec).
Misoprostol (Cytotec).
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Methylergonovine (Methergine) is contraindicated in clients with hypertension because it can cause severe hypertension by increasing vascular resistance, leading to potential complications such as stroke.
Choice B rationale
Oxytocin (Pitocin) is used to induce labor and control postpartum hemorrhage and does not significantly increase blood pressure, making it safe for use in hypertensive patients.
Choice C rationale
Carboprost (Hemabate) is used to control severe postpartum hemorrhage and does not have significant effects on blood pressure. It is generally safe for hypertensive patients.
Choice D rationale
Misoprostol (Cytotec) is used for postpartum hemorrhage management and does not significantly affect blood pressure, making it safe for hypertensive patients.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Prolapsed cord involves the umbilical cord descending into the birth canal ahead of the fetus, which is a critical emergency but presents differently, typically with changes in fetal
heart rate and the cord being palpable or visible.
Choice B rationale
Abruptio placentae is characterized by the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and is a medical
emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
Choice C rationale
Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervical opening, which can cause painless vaginal bleeding but does not typically present with severe
abdominal pain.
Choice D rationale
Incompetent cervix is associated with painless cervical dilation and potential preterm labor but not typically with severe abdominal pain and acute vaginal bleeding as seen with
abruptio placentae
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Irregular menses are not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer. While they can indicate hormonal imbalances, they are not strongly linked to cervical cancer risk.
Choice B rationale
Menopausal status and hormone replacement therapy (HRT) are more closely linked to breast cancer risks rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer is primarily associated with HPV infection.
Choice C rationale
Multiple sexual partners increase the risk of HPV infection, which is the primary cause of cervical cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that significantly raises the likelihood of developing cervical cancer.
Choice D rationale
A family history of breast cancer is more relevant to breast cancer risk rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer risk is more closely linked to HPV infection and sexual behavior.