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A nurse is receiving a report on a new postpartum admission. Her medical history includes chronic hypertension.
The client is asking about postpartum orders.

Which of the following would be contraindicated based on the client's medical history?

A.

Methylergonovine (Methergine).

B.

Oxytocin (Pitocin).

C.

Carboprost (Hemabate).

D.

Misoprostol (Cytotec).

E.

Misoprostol (Cytotec).

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Methylergonovine (Methergine) is contraindicated in clients with hypertension because it can cause severe hypertension by increasing vascular resistance, leading to potential complications such as stroke.

 

Choice B rationale

Oxytocin (Pitocin) is used to induce labor and control postpartum hemorrhage and does not significantly increase blood pressure, making it safe for use in hypertensive patients.

 

Choice C rationale

Carboprost (Hemabate) is used to control severe postpartum hemorrhage and does not have significant effects on blood pressure. It is generally safe for hypertensive patients.

 

Choice D rationale

Misoprostol (Cytotec) is used for postpartum hemorrhage management and does not significantly affect blood pressure, making it safe for hypertensive patients.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Prolapsed cord involves the umbilical cord descending into the birth canal ahead of the fetus, which is a critical emergency but presents differently, typically with changes in fetal

heart rate and the cord being palpable or visible.

Choice B rationale

Abruptio placentae is characterized by the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and is a medical

emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent maternal and fetal complications.

Choice C rationale

Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervical opening, which can cause painless vaginal bleeding but does not typically present with severe

abdominal pain.

Choice D rationale

Incompetent cervix is associated with painless cervical dilation and potential preterm labor but not typically with severe abdominal pain and acute vaginal bleeding as seen with

abruptio placentae

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Irregular menses are not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer. While they can indicate hormonal imbalances, they are not strongly linked to cervical cancer risk.

Choice B rationale

Menopausal status and hormone replacement therapy (HRT) are more closely linked to breast cancer risks rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer is primarily associated with HPV infection.

Choice C rationale

Multiple sexual partners increase the risk of HPV infection, which is the primary cause of cervical cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that significantly raises the likelihood of developing cervical cancer.

Choice D rationale

A family history of breast cancer is more relevant to breast cancer risk rather than cervical cancer. Cervical cancer risk is more closely linked to HPV infection and sexual behavior.

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