A nurse is providing information to a client about durable power of attorney. The nurse should include that durable power of attorney is enforceable under which of the following conditions?
The client is incapable of providing self-care.
The client is terminally ill.
The client is unable to express their wishes.
The client has refused treatment.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason:
The condition that the client is incapable of providing self-care does not necessarily make a durable power of attorney enforceable. While incapacity can be a factor, the key aspect is the client’s ability to make decisions. A durable power of attorney becomes effective when the client is unable to make their own decisions, not merely when they are unable to provide self-care.
Choice B Reason:
Being terminally ill does not automatically make a durable power of attorney enforceable. The enforceability of a durable power of attorney is based on the client’s decision-making capacity. While terminal illness might lead to incapacity, it is the inability to make decisions that triggers the use of the durable power of attorney.
Choice C Reason:
A durable power of attorney is specifically designed to be enforceable when the client is unable to express their wishes. This legal document allows the designated agent to make decisions on behalf of the client when they are incapacitated and unable to communicate their preferences. This ensures that the client’s affairs are managed according to their wishes, even when they cannot express them.
Choice D Reason:
The refusal of treatment by the client does not make a durable power of attorney enforceable. The enforceability is related to the client’s capacity to make decisions. If a client is still capable of making informed decisions, even if they refuse treatment, the durable power of attorney does not come into effect.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
A negative Chvostek’s sign is not expected in a client with hypocalcemia. The Chvostek’s sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, where tapping the facial nerve triggers facial muscle twitching. A positive Chvostek’s sign indicates neuromuscular irritability due to low calcium levels. Therefore, a negative Chvostek’s sign would not be consistent with hypocalcemia.
Choice B Reason:
A positive Trousseau’s sign is a classic indicator of hypocalcemia. This sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff on the upper arm to a level above the systolic pressure for several minutes. The resultant carpopedal spasm (involuntary contraction of the hand and wrist muscles) is a positive Trousseau’s sign, indicating neuromuscular irritability due to low calcium levels.
Choice C Reason:
Muscle cramps are a common syptom of hypocalcemia. Low calcium levels increase neuromuscular excitability, leading to involuntary muscle contractions and cramps. These cramps can occur in various muscle groups, often causing significant discomfort.
Choice D Reason:
Abdominal distention is not typically associated with hypocalcemia. While abdominal distention can result from various gastrointestinal issues, it is not a direct symptom of low calcium levels. Hypocalcemia primarily affects neuromuscular function rather than causing abdominal distention.
Choice E Reason:
Tingling sensation around the lips, also known as perioral tingling, is a common symptom of hypocalcemia. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular irritability caused by low calcium levels, leading to sensations of tingling or numbness around the mouth.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: Have a fecal occult blood test every 2 years.
The recommendation for fecal occult blood tests (FOBT) is typically to have them annually, not every 2 years. Regular screening is crucial for early detection of colorectal cancer. The American Cancer Society suggests that people aged 45 and older should have an FOBT every year. This test helps detect hidden blood in the stool, which can be an early sign of cancer.
Choice B: Limit intake of dietary fiber.
Dietary fiber is actually beneficial in reducing the risk of colorectal cancer. High-fiber diets, rich in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, are associated with a lower risk of developing colorectal cancer. Fiber helps in maintaining a healthy digestive system and can aid in the prevention of cancer by promoting regular bowel movements and reducing the time that potential carcinogens stay in the colon.
Choice C: Reduce intake of red meats.
Reducing the intake of red meats is a well-supported recommendation for lowering the risk of colorectal cancer. Studies have shown that high consumption of red and processed meats is linked to an increased risk of colorectal cancer. Reducing the intake of these meats and opting for healthier protein sources like fish, poultry, and plant-based proteins can help lower this risk.
Choice D: Have a colonoscopy every 3 years.
The standard recommendation for colonoscopy screening is every 10 years for individuals at average risk, starting at age 45. More frequent colonoscopies, such as every 3 years, are generally reserved for those with higher risk factors, such as a family history of colorectal cancer or the presence of polyps. Regular colonoscopy screenings are vital for detecting and removing polyps before they can develop into cancer.
