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A nurse is providing care to a woman who is at 36 weeks of gestation and in preterm labor with ruptured membranes.
The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 39.0 C (102.2 F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

A.

Administer prescribed antipyretics for maternal fever.

B.

Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section.

C.

Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly.

D.

Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hr.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Administering antipyretics for maternal fever is essential as elevated maternal temperatures can increase the risk of fetal tachycardia and potentially lead to fetal distress. Reducing

fever promptly is a priority to stabilize both maternal and fetal conditions.

 

Choice B rationale

Preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not the immediate step for maternal fever; instead, managing the fever and assessing the need for further interventions based on the

overall clinical picture should be prioritized.

 

Choice C rationale

Administering glucocorticoids is indicated for promoting fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not specifically for maternal fever management. Fever management requires antipyretics

and hydration.

 

Choice D rationale

Waiting 4 hours to recheck temperature delays prompt management, increasing risks for both the mother and fetus. Immediate action to reduce fever is crucial to prevent potential

complications.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Open heart surgery is unrelated to the development of vaginal fistulas.

Choice B rationale

Tissue trauma from childbirth can cause vaginal fistulas, as prolonged labor or obstetric interventions can damage vaginal tissue and lead to fistula formation.

Choice C rationale

Diabetes mellitus does not directly cause vaginal fistulas, although it can affect overall tissue health and healing.

Choice D rationale

Preeclampsia, while a serious pregnancy complication, is not a direct cause of vaginal fistulas.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A reaction from an epidural can cause side effects such as hypotension and shivering, but it is not related to tachysystole.

Choice B rationale

When the fetus's heart rate drops below baseline, it is termed bradycardia, not tachysystole. This condition can occur due to various reasons, including cord prolapse or placental insufficiency.

Choice C rationale

Tachysystole is defined as more than five contractions in 10 minutes. This condition can lead to reduced blood flow to the fetus, resulting in fetal distress.

Choice D rationale

Pitocin is a medication used to induce labor and can cause tachysystole, but the administration of Pitocin itself is not the definition of tachysystole. It's the increased frequency of contractions that defines the condition.

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