A nurse is providing care to a woman who is at 36 weeks of gestation and in preterm labor with ruptured membranes.
The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 39.0 C (102.2 F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
Administer prescribed antipyretics for maternal fever.
Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section.
Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly.
Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hr.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Administering antipyretics for maternal fever is essential as elevated maternal temperatures can increase the risk of fetal tachycardia and potentially lead to fetal distress. Reducing
fever promptly is a priority to stabilize both maternal and fetal conditions.
Choice B rationale
Preparing for an emergency cesarean section is not the immediate step for maternal fever; instead, managing the fever and assessing the need for further interventions based on the
overall clinical picture should be prioritized.
Choice C rationale
Administering glucocorticoids is indicated for promoting fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not specifically for maternal fever management. Fever management requires antipyretics
and hydration.
Choice D rationale
Waiting 4 hours to recheck temperature delays prompt management, increasing risks for both the mother and fetus. Immediate action to reduce fever is crucial to prevent potential
complications.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Male condoms are effective in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections, but their reliability can be compromised by improper use or breakage.
Choice B rationale
Vaginal rings provide hormonal contraception and are effective, but they may be less reliable compared to implants due to potential for incorrect use.
Choice C rationale
Hormonal implants are highly reliable because they provide continuous contraception over an extended period (up to 3-5 years) with minimal user intervention.
Choice D rationale
Oral contraceptives are effective when taken correctly, but their reliability can be reduced by missed doses or incorrect use.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Postpartum blues typically resolve within the first two weeks postpartum and involve mild symptoms like mood swings and irritability. In contrast, postpartum depression can persist
longer and requires treatment.
Choice B rationale
Symptoms of postpartum blues usually disappear without medical intervention, whereas postpartum depression often needs professional treatment to manage the more severe and
persistent symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Postpartum depression can impair a mother's ability to care for herself and her baby safely, requiring intervention to prevent harm. Postpartum blues do not typically cause such severe
functional impairment.
Choice D rationale
Postpartum depression may require antidepressants for treatment due to its severity. Postpartum blues generally do not necessitate such interventions and are managed through
support and reassurance.
Choice E rationale
Postpartum depression can occur at any time within the first 12 months after delivery, while postpartum blues are usually confined to the initial two weeks postpartum.