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A nurse is presenting a community-based program about HIV and AIDS. A client asks the nurse to describe the initial symptoms experienced with HIV infection. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include in the explanation of initial symptoms?

A.

Flu-like symptoms and night sweats

B.

Fungal and bacterial infections

C.

Pneumocystis lung infection

D.

Kaposi’s sarcoma

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A: Flu-like symptoms and night sweats

 

The initial symptoms of HIV infection often resemble those of the flu. These symptoms, known as acute retroviral syndrome (ARS) or primary HIV infection, typically occur within 2 to 4 weeks after the virus enters the body. Common symptoms include fever, chills, night sweats, muscle aches, sore throat, fatigue, swollen lymph nodes, and a rash. These symptoms are the body’s natural response to the virus and indicate that the immune system is reacting to the infection. Night sweats, in particular, are a common symptom during the early stages of HIV infection.

 

Choice B: Fungal and bacterial infections

 

Fungal and bacterial infections are more commonly associated with later stages of HIV infection, particularly when the immune system has been significantly weakened. As HIV progresses and the immune system deteriorates, individuals become more susceptible to opportunistic infections, which are infections that occur more frequently and are more severe in people with weakened immune systems. These infections are not typically seen in the initial stages of HIV infection.

 

Choice C: Pneumocystis lung infection

 

Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) is a serious infection that occurs in people with weakened immune systems, including those with advanced HIV/AIDS. It is caused by the fungus Pneumocystis jirovecii. PCP is not an initial symptom of HIV infection but rather a complication that can arise when the immune system is severely compromised. This infection is more indicative of the later stages of HIV, particularly when the CD4 cell count drops significantly.

 

Choice D: Kaposi’s sarcoma

 

Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that forms in the lining of blood and lymph vessels. It is caused by the human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) and is commonly associated with advanced HIV infection or AIDS. Kaposi’s sarcoma presents as purple, red, or brown blotches or tumors on the skin and can also affect internal organs. This condition is not an initial symptom of HIV infection but rather a manifestation of severe immune system damage in the later stages of the disease.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A: Perform a Blind Finger Sweep

Performing a blind finger sweep is not recommended because it can push the foreign object further into the airway, making the obstruction worse. This method is only advised if the object is clearly visible and can be safely removed without causing further harm.

Choice B: Turn the Client to the Side

Turning the client to the side can be helpful in certain situations, such as when the client is unconscious or at risk of vomiting. However, in the case of a conscious client with a foreign body airway obstruction, this action does not directly address the obstruction and is not the first priority.

Choice C: Insert an Oral Airway

Inserting an oral airway is typically used to maintain an open airway in an unconscious patient who cannot maintain their own airway. For a conscious client with a foreign body obstruction, this action is not appropriate and could cause further complications.

Choice D: Administer the Abdominal Thrust Maneuver

Administering the abdominal thrust maneuver (also known as the Heimlich maneuver) is the recommended first action for a conscious client with a foreign body airway obstruction. This technique involves standing behind the client, placing a fist just above their navel, and delivering quick, upward thrusts to expel the foreign object. This method is effective in creating an artificial cough that can dislodge the obstruction.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Chicken broth:

Chicken broth is part of a clear liquid diet, which is typically recommended immediately after surgery to ensure the digestive system is not overburdened. While nutritious, it does not meet the criteria for a full liquid diet, which includes more substantial liquids.

Choice B reason: Flavored gelatin:

Flavored gelatin is also a component of a clear liquid diet. It is easy to digest and provides some hydration and minimal calories. However, it does not provide the nutritional value needed for a full liquid diet.

Choice C reason: Cranberry juice:

Cranberry juice is another item that fits within a clear liquid diet. It is hydrating and provides some vitamins but lacks the protein and calories necessary for a full liquid diet.

Choice D reason: Skim milk:

Skim milk is appropriate for a full liquid diet. It provides essential nutrients, including protein, calcium, and vitamins, which are necessary for recovery after surgery4. Full liquid diets are designed to be more nutritious than clear liquid diets and include items like milk, cream soups, and smooth dairy products.

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