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A nurse is preparing to perform an abdominal assessment on a child. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow. Move the steps into the box in order of performance:

A.

Inspection

B.

Auscultation

C.

Superficial palpation

D.

Deep palpation

Question Solution

Correct Answer : A,B,C,D

The correct answer is a) Inspection, b) Auscultation, c) Superficial palpation, d) Deep palpation.

 

Choice A reason:

 

Inspection is the first step in an abdominal assessment. This involves visually examining the abdomen for any abnormalities such as distension, scars, lesions, or asymmetry. The nurse should note the shape, contour, and any visible movements or pulsations. This step is crucial as it provides the initial information about the patient’s condition and helps guide the subsequent steps of the assessment.

 

Choice B reason:

 

Auscultation follows inspection in the sequence of an abdominal assessment. The nurse uses a stethoscope to listen for bowel sounds in all four quadrants of the abdomen. This step is performed before palpation to avoid altering the natural bowel sounds. The presence, frequency, and character of bowel sounds can provide valuable information about the gastrointestinal function and help identify any abnormalities such as bowel obstruction or ileus.

 

Choice C reason:

 

Superficial palpation is the third step in the abdominal assessment sequence. The nurse gently palpates the abdomen to assess for tenderness, muscle tone, and any superficial masses. This step helps identify areas of discomfort or pain and provides information about the condition of the abdominal wall and underlying structures. It is important to perform this step gently to avoid causing discomfort or pain to the patient.

 

Choice D reason:

 

Deep palpation is the final step in the abdominal assessment sequence. The nurse applies more pressure to palpate deeper structures within the abdomen. This step helps assess for any deep-seated masses, organ enlargement, or areas of tenderness that were not detected during superficial palpation. Deep palpation should be performed carefully to avoid causing pain or discomfort to the patient.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A: Diffuse fibrin deposition in the microvasculature

Diffuse fibrin deposition in the microvasculature is not characteristic of immune thrombocytopenia (ITP). This description is more aligned with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a condition where widespread clotting occurs within the blood vessels, leading to multiple organ damage.

Choice B: Deficiency in the production rate of globin chains

A deficiency in the production rate of globin chains is associated with thalassemia, a genetic blood disorder that affects the production of hemoglobin. This is not related to the pathology of immune thrombocytopenia.

Choice C: An excessive destruction of platelets

An excessive destruction of platelets is the hallmark of immune thrombocytopenia (ITP). In ITP, the immune system mistakenly targets and destroys platelets, which are essential for blood clotting. This leads to a low platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding.

Choice D: Bone marrow failure in which all elements are suppressed

Bone marrow failure in which all elements are suppressed is characteristic of aplastic anemia, a condition where the bone marrow fails to produce sufficient blood cells. This is not related to immune thrombocytopenia.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Cardiac arrhythmia is a primary clinical manifestation of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia, defined as an elevated level of potassium in the blood, can significantly affect the electrical activity of the heart. This can lead to various types of arrhythmias, including bradycardia, ventricular tachycardia, and even cardiac arrest1. The presence of arrhythmias is a critical indicator of hyperkalemia and requires immediate medical attention to prevent life-threatening complications.

Choice B reason:

Seizures are not typically associated with hyperkalemia2. While severe electrolyte imbalances can potentially lead to neurological symptoms, seizures are more commonly linked to conditions such as hyponatremia (low sodium levels) or hypocalcemia (low calcium levels). Therefore, seizures are not a primary sign of hyperkalemia.

Choice C reason:

Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, can occur in various medical conditions, including heart failure and respiratory disorders. While hyperkalemia can lead to muscle weakness and fatigue, which might indirectly affect breathing, dyspnea is not a primary clinical manifestation of hyperkalemia. The main concern with hyperkalemia is its effect on cardiac function.

Choice D reason:

Oliguria, or reduced urine output, is a symptom of acute renal failure but not specifically indicative of hyperkalemia. While acute renal failure can lead to hyperkalemia due to the kidneys’ inability to excrete potassium, oliguria itself is not a direct sign of hyperkalemia. The focus should be on the cardiac effects of elevated potassium levels

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