A nurse is preparing to administer an opioid analgesic to a client who is in active labor.
Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform? (Select all that apply.)
Blood pressure.
Fetal heart rate.
Deep tendon reflexes.
Blood glucose.
Correct Answer : A,B
Choice A rationale
Blood pressure should be assessed as opioid analgesics can cause hypotension, which can be detrimental to both mother and fetus during labor.
Choice B rationale
Fetal heart rate monitoring is essential as opioids can cross the placenta and potentially cause fetal bradycardia or distress, thus necessitating close monitoring.
Choice C rationale
Deep tendon reflexes are not commonly affected by opioid analgesics and therefore are not a primary assessment when administering these medications during labor.
Choice D rationale
Blood glucose levels are not typically influenced by opioid analgesics in the context of labor, so this is not a relevant assessment for this scenario.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Variable decelerations are associated with umbilical cord compression, not placenta previa. In placenta previa, the placenta covers the cervical os, but it does not typically cause
variable decelerations on fetal monitoring.
Choice B rationale
Painless vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. This occurs because the placenta is located near or over the cervical os, leading to bleeding when the cervix dilates
or effaces.
Choice C rationale
A rigid abdomen is more indicative of placental abruption, where the placenta detaches prematurely from the uterine wall, causing pain and a tense abdomen, not typically seen in
placenta previa.
Choice D rationale
Uterine tachysystole is characterized by excessive uterine contractions and is not a clinical finding related to placenta previa. Tachysystole often results from excessive oxytocin use
or other uterine stimulants.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume. This is because the body compensates for blood loss by increasing heart rate and
vasoconstriction, maintaining blood pressure until a significant amount of blood is lost.
Choice B rationale
Hemorrhagic shock will cause a decrease, not an increase, in a client's serum pH due to the accumulation of lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism, leading to metabolic acidosis.
Choice C rationale
The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output. Adequate urine output reflects sufficient renal blood flow and overall perfusion, making it a reliable indicator
of organ perfusion.
Choice D rationale
An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers for each 1 mL of blood loss is not accurate. The typical fluid replacement ratio is 3:, meaning 3 mL of crystalloid solution (like lactated Ringers) is given for each 1 mL of blood loss to account for fluid distribution in the body.