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A nurse is preparing to administer an opioid analgesic to a client who is in active labor.
Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform? (Select all that apply.)

A.

Blood pressure.

B.

Fetal heart rate.

C.

Deep tendon reflexes.

D.

Blood glucose.

Question Solution

Correct Answer : A,B

Choice A rationale

Blood pressure should be assessed as opioid analgesics can cause hypotension, which can be detrimental to both mother and fetus during labor.

 

Choice B rationale

Fetal heart rate monitoring is essential as opioids can cross the placenta and potentially cause fetal bradycardia or distress, thus necessitating close monitoring.

 

Choice C rationale

Deep tendon reflexes are not commonly affected by opioid analgesics and therefore are not a primary assessment when administering these medications during labor.

 

Choice D rationale

Blood glucose levels are not typically influenced by opioid analgesics in the context of labor, so this is not a relevant assessment for this scenario.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A respiratory rate of 12/min indicates that the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate toxicity has been effectively reversed by calcium gluconate. Normal respiratory rate in adults is 12-20 breaths per minute.

Choice B rationale

Absent deep tendon reflexes indicate ongoing magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate administration should restore normal reflexes, not cause their absence.

Choice C rationale

Slurred speech is a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Effective treatment with calcium gluconate should improve neurological function and resolve symptoms like slurred speech.

Choice D rationale

A urine output of 22 mL/hr is below the normal range and suggests renal impairment or ongoing toxicity. Effective treatment should result in an increase in urine output to within the normal range (greater than 30 mL/hr).

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume. This is because the body compensates for blood loss by increasing heart rate and

vasoconstriction, maintaining blood pressure until a significant amount of blood is lost.

Choice B rationale

Hemorrhagic shock will cause a decrease, not an increase, in a client's serum pH due to the accumulation of lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism, leading to metabolic acidosis.

Choice C rationale

The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output. Adequate urine output reflects sufficient renal blood flow and overall perfusion, making it a reliable indicator

of organ perfusion.

Choice D rationale

An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers for each 1 mL of blood loss is not accurate. The typical fluid replacement ratio is 3:, meaning 3 mL of crystalloid solution (like lactated Ringers) is given for each 1 mL of blood loss to account for fluid distribution in the body.

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