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A nurse is preparing to administer an opioid analgesic to a client who is in active labor.
Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform? (Select all that apply.)

A.

Blood pressure.

B.

Fetal heart rate.

C.

Deep tendon reflexes.

D.

Blood glucose.

Question Solution

Correct Answer : A,B

Choice A rationale

Blood pressure should be assessed as opioid analgesics can cause hypotension, which can be detrimental to both mother and fetus during labor.

 

Choice B rationale

Fetal heart rate monitoring is essential as opioids can cross the placenta and potentially cause fetal bradycardia or distress, thus necessitating close monitoring.

 

Choice C rationale

Deep tendon reflexes are not commonly affected by opioid analgesics and therefore are not a primary assessment when administering these medications during labor.

 

Choice D rationale

Blood glucose levels are not typically influenced by opioid analgesics in the context of labor, so this is not a relevant assessment for this scenario.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume. This is because the body compensates for blood loss by increasing heart rate and

vasoconstriction, maintaining blood pressure until a significant amount of blood is lost.

Choice B rationale

Hemorrhagic shock will cause a decrease, not an increase, in a client's serum pH due to the accumulation of lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism, leading to metabolic acidosis.

Choice C rationale

The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output. Adequate urine output reflects sufficient renal blood flow and overall perfusion, making it a reliable indicator

of organ perfusion.

Choice D rationale

An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers for each 1 mL of blood loss is not accurate. The typical fluid replacement ratio is 3:, meaning 3 mL of crystalloid solution (like lactated Ringers) is given for each 1 mL of blood loss to account for fluid distribution in the body.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy as it indicates the presence of hCG, a hormone produced during pregnancy. However, it is not a presumptive sign, as other

conditions can also result in elevated hCG levels.

Choice B rationale

Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods, is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is one of the earliest indications that a woman may be pregnant, though it can also be

caused by other factors such as stress or hormonal imbalances.

Choice C rationale

Fetal heart sounds detected by Doppler ultrasound are a positive sign of pregnancy, confirming the presence of a fetus. This is not a presumptive sign as it is direct evidence of

pregnancy.

Choice D rationale

Chadwick's sign, a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased blood flow, is considered a probable sign of pregnancy. It is not a presumptive sign but rather

a physical change that occurs during pregnancy. .

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