A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client who states, "That looks different from the pill I usually take." Which is the best response by the nurse?
"What does your usual pill look like?"
"This is the medication prescribed by your provider."
"This hospital might use a different manufacturer, but the medication is the same."
"This pill is probably from a different lot number than yours at home."
The Correct Answer is C
A. Asking what the usual pill looks like may not provide clarity and does not address the client's concern directly.
B. While the statement is accurate, it does not provide the client with reassurance or address the reason for the difference in appearance.
C. This response acknowledges the client's concern, offers an explanation about variations in medication appearance due to different manufacturers, and reassures the client that it is the same medication prescribed.
D. Suggesting that the pill is from a different lot number does not address the fact that variations in appearance can occur due to different manufacturers, which is more common and relevant to the situation.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A BMI greater than 30 is a consideration, but it is not an absolute contraindication for the use of POPs.
B. Ginger does not interact adversely with progestin-only pills and is not a contraindication.
C. A history of hypertension can increase the risk of cardiovascular events, and while POPs are generally safer than combined hormonal contraceptives for women with hypertension, it should still be monitored and reported to the healthcare provider.
D. Having no intention of conceiving is not a contraindication; in fact, it is a common reason for using contraceptive methods like POPs.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","F"]
Explanation
A. Morphine administered intravenously bypasses the gastrointestinal tract and liver, avoiding the first-pass effect entirely.
B. Diphenhydramine in tablet form is absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract and undergoes significant first-pass metabolism in the liver, affecting its bioavailability.
C. Famotidine in tablet form is also subject to first-pass metabolism, which can reduce its effectiveness.
D. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are designed to bypass the first-pass metabolism by being absorbed directly into the bloodstream through the mucous membranes.
E. The same applies to nitroglycerin 10mg sublingual tablets; they also avoid the first-pass effect due to sublingual administration.
F. Acetaminophen is taken orally and undergoes first-pass metabolism in the liver, which can significantly affect its overall bioavailability.