A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client who states, "That looks different from the pill I usually take." Which is the best response by the nurse?
"What does your usual pill look like?"
"This is the medication prescribed by your provider."
"This hospital might use a different manufacturer, but the medication is the same."
"This pill is probably from a different lot number than yours at home."
The Correct Answer is C
A. Asking what the usual pill looks like may not provide clarity and does not address the client's concern directly.
B. While the statement is accurate, it does not provide the client with reassurance or address the reason for the difference in appearance.
C. This response acknowledges the client's concern, offers an explanation about variations in medication appearance due to different manufacturers, and reassures the client that it is the same medication prescribed.
D. Suggesting that the pill is from a different lot number does not address the fact that variations in appearance can occur due to different manufacturers, which is more common and relevant to the situation.
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Correct Answer is ["C","E","F"]
Explanation
A. Rebound hypotension is more commonly associated with abrupt withdrawal of beta-blockers rather than a direct side effect, so it is not typically included as a side effect to expect while on the medication.
B. Vomiting is not a common side effect associated with propranolol; the nurse would not educate the client on this.
C. Bradycardia is a known side effect of propranolol, as it is a beta-blocker that decreases heart rate, so clients should be educated about monitoring their heart rate.
D. Tremors can be related to withdrawal from beta-agonists rather than propranolol, which may alleviate tremors in some individuals; thus, it's not a common side effect of the medication.
E. Propranolol can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia (e.g., tachycardia), making it important for clients with diabetes to be aware of this potential effect.
F. Bronchoconstriction can occur in clients with reactive airway diseases, as propranolol non-selectively blocks beta receptors, so clients should be educated about this risk, especially if they have asthma or other pulmonary conditions.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Chlorpheniramine is a first-generation antihistamine and may cause sedation and other side effects due to its ability to cross the blood-brain barrier.
B. Cetirizine is a second-generation antihistamine that is less likely to cause sedation and is used to relieve symptoms of allergic rhinitis.
C. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not an antihistamine, and is used for allergic rhinitis and asthma.
D. Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine known for its sedative effects and is often used for allergies but is not classified as a second-generation antihistamine.