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A nurse is planning to administer Rh(D) immune globulin to a client who is postpartum.Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A.

Verify that the newborn is Rh-negative.

B.

Verify that the client’s Coombs test is positive.

C.

Administer the medication within 72 hours after birth.

D.

Administer the medication into the client’s abdomen.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

 

Verifying that the newborn is Rh-negative is not necessary for administering Rh(D) immune globulin. The medication is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent Rh sensitization, regardless of the newborn’s Rh status.

 

Choice B rationale

 

A positive Coombs test indicates that the mother has already been sensitized to Rh-positive blood cells, making Rh(D) immune globulin ineffective in preventing sensitization.

 

Choice C rationale

 

Administering Rh(D) immune globulin within 72 hours after birth is crucial to prevent Rh sensitization in future pregnancies. This timing ensures that the mother’s immune system does not produce antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells.

 

Choice D rationale

 

Rh(D) immune globulin is typically administered intramuscularly, not into the abdomen. The preferred sites are the deltoid muscle or the anterolateral aspect of the thigh.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Placing the client in the knee-chest position is not appropriate for managing hypotension caused by an epidural infusion. This position does not effectively improve blood pressure.

Choice B rationale

Administering methylergonovine IM is not appropriate for managing hypotension caused by an epidural infusion. Methylergonovine is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage, not hypotension.

Choice C rationale

Giving a bolus of lactated Ringer’s is the appropriate action to manage hypotension caused by an epidural infusion. This helps to increase blood volume and improve blood pressure.

Choice D rationale

Assisting the client to empty her bladder is important, but it is not the immediate priority in managing hypotension caused by an epidural infusion.

Correct Answer is ["D","G","H"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Deep tendon reflexes of 1+ are considered within normal limits and do not require immediate follow-up. This finding is not indicative of any acute complications.

Choice B rationale

A blood pressure reading of 136/86 mm Hg is slightly elevated but not critically high. It does not indicate an immediate risk and can be monitored with routine care.

Choice C rationale

A pain rating of 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 is mild and manageable. It does not necessitate immediate follow-up unless there is a sudden and significant increase in pain.

Choice D rationale

A large amount of lochia rubra can be a sign of excessive bleeding and requires immediate follow-up to assess for postpartum hemorrhage. This finding is concerning and needs prompt attention.

Choice E rationale

Peripheral edema of 2+ in bilateral lower extremities is common in the postpartum period due to fluid shifts and should resolve naturally. It does not require immediate follow-up unless it worsens or is accompanied by other symptoms.

Choice F rationale

Soft breasts are normal postpartum when milk has not yet come in or if the client is not breastfeeding. This finding does not require immediate follow-up as it is a normal occurrence.

Choice G rationale

A soft uterine tone can indicate uterine atony, which can lead to hemorrhage. Immediate follow-up is necessary to prevent potential complications such as postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice H rationale

Lateral deviation of the uterus can indicate a displaced uterus, possibly due to a full bladder or other reasons, which requires prompt attention. This finding could lead to complications if not addressed promptly.

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