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A nurse is planning to administer Rh(D) immune globulin to a client who is postpartum.Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A.

Verify that the newborn is Rh-negative.

B.

Verify that the client’s Coombs test is positive.

C.

Administer the medication within 72 hours after birth.

D.

Administer the medication into the client’s abdomen.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

 

Verifying that the newborn is Rh-negative is not necessary for administering Rh(D) immune globulin. The medication is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent Rh sensitization, regardless of the newborn’s Rh status.

 

Choice B rationale

 

A positive Coombs test indicates that the mother has already been sensitized to Rh-positive blood cells, making Rh(D) immune globulin ineffective in preventing sensitization.

 

Choice C rationale

 

Administering Rh(D) immune globulin within 72 hours after birth is crucial to prevent Rh sensitization in future pregnancies. This timing ensures that the mother’s immune system does not produce antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells.

 

Choice D rationale

 

Rh(D) immune globulin is typically administered intramuscularly, not into the abdomen. The preferred sites are the deltoid muscle or the anterolateral aspect of the thigh.


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View Related questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

There is no need to fast before a nonstress test. The test measures the fetal heart rate in response to fetal movements and does not require any dietary restrictions.

Choice B rationale

During a nonstress test, the client will press a button whenever they feel the baby move. This helps correlate fetal movements with heart rate changes.

Choice C rationale

The client is not required to lie flat on their back for the duration of the test. They can be in a semi-reclined position to ensure comfort and avoid supine hypotensive syndrome.

Choice D rationale

Medication to stimulate contractions is not used during a nonstress test. This is done during a contraction stress test, which is a different procedure.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Retained placental fragments are a significant risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. If parts of the placenta remain attached to the uterine wall, it can prevent the uterus from contracting properly, leading to excessive bleeding.

Choice B rationale

Breech presentation is not a direct risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. While it can complicate delivery, it does not directly cause hemorrhage.

Choice C rationale

Urinary tract infection is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It can cause other complications but does not directly lead to hemorrhage.

Choice D rationale

Oligohydramnios, or low amniotic fluid, is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It can cause complications during pregnancy but does not directly lead to hemorrhage.

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