A nurse is planning care for a newborn who was exposed to active genital herpes simplex virus (HSV) during birth.
Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse anticipate?
Institute droplet precautions.
Administer ceftriaxone sodium.
Inform the client they should bottlefeed the newborn.
Obtain surface cultures from the newborn
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Instituting droplet precautions is not necessary for herpes simplex virus (HSV). HSV is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected body fluids or lesions, not through respiratory droplets.
Choice B rationale
Administering ceftriaxone sodium is not appropriate for HSV. Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, whereas HSV is a viral infection and requires antiviral treatment.
Choice C rationale
Informing the client they should bottlefeed the newborn is not necessary. Mothers with HSV can breastfeed as long as there are no herpetic lesions on the breast. Proper hand hygiene and preventive measures should be taken to avoid transmission.
Choice D rationale
Obtaining surface cultures from the newborn is the appropriate action. This helps in detecting the presence of HSV and initiating antiviral treatment if necessary. Early detection and treatment are crucial in preventing severe complications associated with neonatal HSV infection.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cesarean birth is not necessarily required for GBS-positive clients as long as IV antibiotic prophylaxis is administered during labor to prevent transmission to the newborn.
Choice B rationale
IV antibiotic prophylaxis, typically with penicillin or ampicillin, is given to GBS-positive clients during labor to prevent neonatal GBS infection.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a vaginal culture at 39 weeks of gestation is not necessary if the client was already screened and found positive for GBS at 36 weeks.
Choice D rationale
Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis, not GBS infection; thus, it is not appropriate for this scenario. .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Manifestations of shock might not appear until a client loses 20% of their blood volume. This is because the body compensates for blood loss by increasing heart rate and
vasoconstriction, maintaining blood pressure until a significant amount of blood is lost.
Choice B rationale
Hemorrhagic shock will cause a decrease, not an increase, in a client's serum pH due to the accumulation of lactic acid from anaerobic metabolism, leading to metabolic acidosis.
Choice C rationale
The most accurate indication of organ perfusion is a client's urine output. Adequate urine output reflects sufficient renal blood flow and overall perfusion, making it a reliable indicator
of organ perfusion.
Choice D rationale
An infusion of 1 mL of lactated Ringers for each 1 mL of blood loss is not accurate. The typical fluid replacement ratio is 3:, meaning 3 mL of crystalloid solution (like lactated Ringers) is given for each 1 mL of blood loss to account for fluid distribution in the body.