A nurse is collecting data on a client who has multiple sclerosis. The client reports there are times when the symptoms are active and times when there are no symptoms. Which of the following types of multiple sclerosis does this pattern indicate?
Primary progressive multiple sclerosis
Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis
Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis
Clinically isolating syndrome
The Correct Answer is B
A. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis is characterized by a gradual progression of symptoms without relapses, so this does not match the client's pattern.
B. Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis is defined by episodes of exacerbation (active symptoms) followed by periods of remission (no symptoms), which aligns with the client's description.
C. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis follows an initial relapsing-remitting course but leads to a more continuous decline in function, so it does not match the pattern described.
D. Clinically isolating syndrome refers to a single episode of neurological symptoms but does not indicate the pattern of relapses and remissions typical of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis.
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Computerized tomography angiography (CTA) is commonly used to visualize blood vessels and identify any blockages or abnormalities in blood flow that may have contributed to a TIA.
B. While a complete blood count (CBC) may be ordered as part of the general assessment, it is not specific for diagnosing TIA and does not provide information on cerebrovascular issues.
C. A transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) is used to assess cardiac function and may be indicated in some stroke cases, but it is not the primary diagnostic test for TIA.
D. Prothrombin time (PT) assesses clotting function but is not specific for diagnosing TIA; it may be ordered for other reasons but is not a primary diagnostic tool in this context.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The right groin area is not the site of the procedure, so placing a sandbag here would not help control bleeding or pressure.
B. The sandbag should be placed over the left groin area where the femoral artery was accessed during the angiography. This helps apply pressure to prevent bleeding from the site and promote clot formation.
C. The right ankle is irrelevant to the procedure and would not require pressure.
D. Similarly, the left ankle has no relation to the femoral angiography site.