A nurse is collecting data from a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
The client has had postoperative emesis.
The client reports pain as 8 on a scale of 0 to 10.
The client's urinary output is 30 mL over 1 hr.
The client has mottling in the affected leg.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Postoperative emesis is a common occurrence and may not be critical unless it persists or is accompanied by other concerning signs.
B. While an 8 out of 10 pain level is significant, it can be managed with appropriate interventions and does not indicate an immediate complication.
C. Urinary output of 30 mL over 1 hour is low but does not necessarily indicate a critical condition that requires immediate intervention.
D. Mottling in the affected leg is a serious finding that may indicate compromised circulation or a thromboembolic event, making it the priority for reporting to the provider.
Free Nursing Test Bank
- Free Pharmacology Quiz 1
- Free Medical-Surgical Quiz 2
- Free Fundamentals Quiz 3
- Free Maternal-Newborn Quiz 4
- Free Anatomy and Physiology Quiz 5
- Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics Quiz 6
- Free Fluid and Electrolytes Quiz 7
- Free Community Health Quiz 8
- Free Promoting Health across the Lifespan Quiz 9
- Free Multidimensional Care Quiz 10
View Related questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ecchymoses (bruising) over the buttocks and lower back in an older adult could be a sign of physical abuse or an underlying bleeding disorder, and it should be reported immediately.
B. Hirsutism, or increased facial and chest hair, is a common age-related change and does not usually require reporting unless it indicates an endocrine disorder.
C. Reduced skin elasticity is a normal age-related finding due to decreased collagen and elastin in aging skin.
D. Increased macules, or age spots, are benign and typical with aging, especially with prolonged sun exposure, and do not require reporting.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Seclusion is a highly restrictive intervention and is not the first action for managing agitation in dementia clients.
B. Engaging the client in a repetitive activity as a distraction is the least restrictive intervention and can help calm the client by redirecting their attention. Non-pharmacological and less restrictive approaches are preferred as initial responses to manage agitation in dementia clients.
C. Administering PRN haloperidol IM is a pharmacological intervention and should be reserved for situations where less restrictive measures have failed.
D. Applying wrist restraints is a restrictive intervention that can increase agitation and is not appropriate as a first-line approach.