A nurse is caring for four clients who are postoperative from surgery 24 hr ago. At 1200 the nurse assesses the clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse's priority?
A client who reports pain as 4 on a scale of 1 to 10 at 0800 now reports pain as 6
A client whose wound drainage at 0800 was sanguineous and now it is serosanguineous
A client who has a prescription for insulin and his premeal capillary blood glucose was 110 mg/dL and his post-meal capillary blood glucose is now 160 mg/dL
A client whose blood pressure at 0800 was 138/86 mm Hg and at 1200 is 106/60 mm Hg
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale:
A. A client who reports pain as 4 on a scale of 1 to 10 at 0800 now reports pain as 6 needs pain management, but this is less urgent compared to potential signs of hypotension.
B. A client whose wound drainage at 0800 was sanguineous and now it is serosanguineous indicates normal progression of wound healing; thus, it is less critical.
C. A client who has a prescription for insulin and his premeal capillary blood glucose was 110 mg/dL and his post-meal capillary blood glucose is now 160 mg/dL needs blood glucose management, but this is less urgent than assessing for potential hypovolemia or shock.
D. A client whose blood pressure at 0800 was 138/86 mm Hg and at 1200 is 106/60 mm Hg is experiencing a significant drop in blood pressure, which could indicate hypovolemia or shock. This requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent complications.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Asking other staff nurses does not address the immediate concern of the client and could lead to gossip or unnecessary complications.
B. Addressing the concern with the specific staff nurse directly is appropriate to understand any issues and to see if there is a valid reason for the client’s request.
C. Recommending transfer without understanding the issue could be premature and might not address the root of the problem.
D. Notifying human resources is a step that may be needed later but should not be the first action; the manager should first address the issue with the staff nurse.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. The nurse coats the indwelling urinary catheter with lubricant is correct and necessary for the procedure to reduce discomfort and facilitate insertion.
B. The nurse applies the sterile drape prior to inserting the urinary catheter is a proper step to maintain a sterile field during the procedure.
C. The nurse provides perineal care prior to inserting the urinary catheter is appropriate as it ensures cleanliness before catheter insertion.
D. The nurse separates the client's labia with her dominant hand should not be done; the non-dominant hand should be used to hold the labia apart to maintain sterility.