A nurse is caring for an older adult client in the PACU following general anesthesia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Urine output 120 mL in 4 hr
Systolic blood pressure 12 mm Hg lower than the preoperative level
Audible stridor
Normal sinus rhythm with an occasional premature ventricular contraction
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Urine output of 120 mL in 4 hours is within acceptable limits, especially following anesthesia. Normal output can vary, but 30 mL/hr is often used as a guideline.
B. A systolic blood pressure that is only 12 mm Hg lower than preoperative levels may be concerning, but it does not necessarily require immediate reporting unless other symptoms are present.
C. Audible stridor is a sign of airway obstruction or severe respiratory distress and requires immediate medical attention. It should always be reported to the provider.
D. An occasional premature ventricular contraction (PVC) can be common postoperatively and may not necessitate reporting unless accompanied by significant symptoms or changes in hemodynamic status.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Comparing the nurse's skills to coworkers may not provide an accurate evaluation as it can vary based on individual roles and responsibilities.
B. While client satisfaction reports can reflect overall performance, they may not specifically address time management skills.
C. Maintaining regular notes about the nurse's time management skills allows for ongoing assessment and provides concrete examples during the appraisal, making it the most effective method.
D. Asking another staff nurse for evaluation can introduce bias and may not provide a comprehensive view of the nurse's time management skills.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Withholding the next dose of warfarin may not be necessary at this point, as the INR is elevated but not critically high. Monitoring is essential, but vitamin K administration is indicated if the INR exceeds therapeutic levels significantly.
B. Withholding the heparin infusion is not appropriate since the aPTT is critically elevated, indicating that the client is at risk for bleeding. Heparin should be adjusted, but not entirely withheld without further evaluation.
C. Preparing to administer vitamin K is appropriate because the INR is elevated (1.8), indicating an increased risk for bleeding. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin.
D. Preparing to administer alteplase (a thrombolytic) is unnecessary and inappropriate in this situation, as the client is already receiving anticoagulation therapy with heparin and warfarin.