A nurse is caring for a school-age child who is taking valproic acid. The nurse should expect the provider to order which of the following diagnostic tests?
ABGs
Serum liver enzyme levels
Chest X-ray
Urine culture and sensitivity
The Correct Answer is B
Rationale:
A. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) are typically used to assess respiratory function and acid-base balance, which are not primary concerns with valproic acid use.
B. Serum liver enzyme levels are critical to monitor due to the risk of hepatotoxicity associated with valproic acid therapy, making this test essential for safe management.
C. A chest X-ray is generally used to assess respiratory conditions, not relevant for monitoring the effects of valproic acid.
D. Urine culture and sensitivity are used to diagnose urinary tract infections and are not relevant to the monitoring of valproic acid therapy.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Decreased cholesterol is not a primary effect of chlorpromazine; the medication is primarily used for psychiatric conditions, not lipid management.
B. While chlorpromazine may have sedative effects that could impact blood pressure, decreased blood pressure is not a direct indicator of its effectiveness in treating psychiatric symptoms.
C. Decreased esophageal reflux is not a relevant effect of chlorpromazine, as it is primarily used for managing psychotic symptoms.
D. Decreased hallucinations is a direct indication of the medication's effectiveness in treating conditions such as schizophrenia or other psychotic disorders, as chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Withholding the next dose of warfarin may not be necessary at this point, as the INR is elevated but not critically high. Monitoring is essential, but vitamin K administration is indicated if the INR exceeds therapeutic levels significantly.
B. Withholding the heparin infusion is not appropriate since the aPTT is critically elevated, indicating that the client is at risk for bleeding. Heparin should be adjusted, but not entirely withheld without further evaluation.
C. Preparing to administer vitamin K is appropriate because the INR is elevated (1.8), indicating an increased risk for bleeding. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin.
D. Preparing to administer alteplase (a thrombolytic) is unnecessary and inappropriate in this situation, as the client is already receiving anticoagulation therapy with heparin and warfarin.